1NX51 CDC Comprehensive
(011) The AF defines information superiority as:
that degree of dominance in the information domain which allows friendly forces the ability to gain, exploit, disseminate, attack, and defend information without effective opposition
(012) OPSEC and counterintelligence operations are considered _______________.
Influence Operations
(012) What is the lead activity and first line of defense against adversary propaganda and disinformation?
Public affairs operations
(012) Which activity misleads or manages the perception of adversaries, causing them to act in accordance with friendly objectives?
Military deception
(013) Which activity is used to locate and identify all sources of EM energy?
Electronic warfare support
(014) What activity is used to deny the enemy use of their networks?
Network attack
(016) IO capabilities during reconstitution include:
Influence friendly and neutral perceptions toward U.S. objectives, inform a foreign audience of residual dangers following humanitarian relief operations
(015) Which ICE capability provides three-dimensional positioning data and a standard timing source that allows coordinated and accurate force application?
Precision navigation and timing
(016) Why must the planning and execution of both IO and air operations be conducted concurrently?
The fast paced conduct of air operations must be considered in order to produce the most effective targeting plan
(017) What is the primary mission of most intelligence units and is accomplished in response to expressed and anticipated user requirements?
Analysis and production
(017) Which step of the intelligence cycle includes correlating and converting data into a formulation suitable for suitable for subsequent analysis and production of intelligence?
Processing and exploitation
(017) Which step of the intelligence cycle include the integration, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of information in response to known or anticipated intelligence production requirements?
Analysis and production
(017) Which requirements are those deemed most important to mission accomplishment?
PIR
(018) What enables a commander to quickly assess situations, develop CONOP, and distribute changes to their forces?
Space-based systems
(019) What is the Navy’s primary system for managing, processing, storing, and sharing critical multi-source intelligence and targeting data and products?
DCGS-N
(019) Where are the two continental U.S.-based systems designed to support global operations located?
Beale AFB, CA and Langley AFB, VA
(020) A ______ environment is one where more than one service is present.
Joint
(020) Who is the single AF commander in charge of USAF’s war fighting contribution to a joint force?
COMAFFOR
(020) Which AOC division is responsible for near-term air and space operations planning within 48 hours prior to ATO execution?
Combat Plans Division
(020) Which AOC division is divided into four teams: Analysis, Correlation, and Fusion Team; Targets/Tactical Assessment Team; ISR Operations Teams; and the Processing, Exploitation, Dissemination Management Team?
ISR Division
(020) Which division would the senior Intelligence Duty Office (SIDO) Team be located?
Combat Operations Division
(020) Which AOC product represents JFACC guidance and intent for air and space operations over a particular period?
AOD
(020) Which AOC product details how the theater air and space effort will support the JFC’s overall operation and campaign plan?
JAOP
(021) Who has overall responsibility for ISR operations planning in the AOC, producing the RSTA annex to the ATO and coordinating with JFC collection managers regarding national collection?
ISR Operations Team
(021) Which ISRD team is responsible for target development and TA for the AOC in support of JFACC objectives?
Targets and Tactical Assessment Team
(022) What is the third step in the IPOE process?
Evaluate the adversary
(022) Effective PBA is the result of the synchronization of which key elements?
IPOE, target development, ISR strategy and planning, ISR employment, and assessment
(022) What shifts the ISR focus from a reactive mode of “discovery” to one where the emphasis is to predict and confirm adversary actions, and inject accurate information where it can support the commander’s objectives?
IPOE
(023) Which targeting phase results in a probable target nominated for further investigation and development in the next phase?
Find
(023) Which target phase of the kill chain can be the longest?
Target
(023) Which target phase takes a confirmed target and its location, and coordinates sensors to maintain situational awareness on the target and may require a reprioritization of ISR assets?
Track
(023) What are non-military facilities upon which attacks are prohibited, unless the adversary uses a facility in violation of LOAC?
No-strike facilities
(024) What color code is used to represent names and man-made features, in marginal data?
Black
(024) What does a purple color code indicate, in reference to marginal data?
Aeronautical features
(024) Vertical obstructions must be how tall to be listed as a navigation hazard?
200 feet
(024) What is used to depict elevation differences on charts?
Shading
(025) A degree is how many minutes?
60 minutes
(025) MGRS uses what unit of measure?
meter
(026) The ISRD of the AOC puts this tenet of air, space and cyber power into practice.
Centralized control/decentralized execution
(027) Which principle of Joint Intelligence is accepting the risk of predicting adversary intentions?
Prediction
(027) Which principle of Joint Intelligence is thinking like the adversary?
Perspective
(028) At which level of war are campaigns and major operations planned, conducted and assessed?
Operational
(029) What special military activity helps prevent adversary action through the presentation of a credible threat of counteraction?
Deterrence
(029) The Revolutionary War is an example of what type of warfare?
Asymmetric warfare
(027) _____________ leverages the expertise of diverse analytic resources?
Collaboration
(030) Which type of plan uses feedback from exercises to ensure its’ soundness and validity to the maximum extent possible?
Contingency planning
(030) What is normally issued following a decision by the President that conduct of military operations in support of national interests is a distinct possibility?
ALERTORD
(030) Which order is issued by the authority and direction of the SECDEF through the CJCS and directs the deployment of forces?
EXORD
(031) The normal AEF cycle includes how long of a normal training period?
14-month
(031) How many tempo bands exist and how long of a vulnerability period does each cover?
5; 6 months
(035) What is comprised of special operations units from more than one service, and may have conventional non-special operations units assigned?
Joint special operations task force
(037) Which is NOT a goal of DoD personnel recovery operations?
Locating foreign military unit bases
(037) When filled in, the ISOPREP card is classified to what level?
Confidential
(038) Which fighter/attack aircraft can convert between air-to-air missions and air-to-ground strike missions while on the same sortie with the flick of a switch?
F/A-18 Hornet
(038) Which aircraft was designed to replace the USAF A-10s and F-16s?
F-35 Lightning II
(038) Which bomber carries the largest payload of both guided and unguided weapons in the AF inventory and is the backbone of the long range bomber force?
B-1B Lancer
(038) Which platforms primary mission is the interdiction and conducting armed reconnaissance against critical, perishable targets?
RQ-1/MQ-1 Predator
(039) Which US Army unit usually contains about 16-40 Soldiers?
Platoon
(039) A _____________ is made of 10,000 to 18,000 Soldiers and is commanded by a Major General.
Division
(039) What Army MOS would be the counterpart to US Air Force 1N1X1A?
35G
(040) Which naval fleet operates in the Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and parts of the Indian Ocean?
5th Fleet
(040) What is the USMC principal operating force in the eastern United States?
II Marine Expeditionary Force
(040) What type of ship is designed to protect other ships and as anti-submarine warfare combatants?
Frigates
(040) Naval intelligence is conducted at what level in dedicated intelligence centers afloat, such as a Carrier Intelligence Center?
Tactical
(040) Which US Navy cryptologic technician type is similar to AF 1N5X1?
CTT
(041) Recovery ops, standoff attacks, raids, ambushes, and precision destruction ops are what type of special operations mission?
Direct Action
(041) Intelligence operations, network and infrastructure attacks, hostage or sensitive material recovery, and non-kinetic activities are what type of special operations mission?
Counterterrorism
(033) A CSG may be involved in a variety of roles, but its MAIN objective is _____________ .
obtaining and maintaining sea control
(030) Which type of planning occurs for real-world real-time emergencies?
Crisis action
(031) How many AEF’s does the AF have?
10
(002) What type of bias happens when an analyst unconsciously ascribes attributes of one event to the other?
Patterns
(002) A pattern of expectations that influence one to think in certain way is called what?
Mindset
(003) If something is probably true you are using ______ reasoning.
Inductive
(004) What type of questions have more than one answer involving the target’s point of view?
Preference
(004) What is inference?
an intellectual act by which we conclude something is true based on something else being true
(005) _____ applies to the “big picture”; the fusion of customer requirements with appropriate data and judgments about that data.
Relevance
(005) The analyst must ensure all questions and hypotheses are stated with ________.
Clarity
(006) Who are the four members of the NSC?
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, SECDEF
(006) Who, appointed by the President with Senate approval, serves as the head of the IC?
DNI
(006) Who is the primary advisor to the President on intelligence matters related to national intelligence?
ODNI
(006) Which of the following encompasses NSA’s mission?
SIGINT and IA
(006) To better serve the military community, which agency established on site presence in the major military commands?
CIA
(006) Which service manages INSCOM’s National Ground Intelligence Center?
Army
(007) Which statement about the JCS is true?
The JCS may transmit communications to combatant commanders from the President and SECDEF, but does not exercise military command over any combatant forces.
(007) Which department oversees and protects vital national security capabilities ranging from nuclear weapons to energy research and development projects?
Department of Energy
(007) How many unified commands are there?
10
(007) Which unified command’s mission is to deter attacks on vital US interest, to ensure US freedom of action in space and cyberspace, to deliver integrated kinetic and non-kinetic effects in support of US JFC operations?
USSTRATCOM
(007) How are MAJCOMs organized overseas?
Geographically
(008) Which intelligence discipline integrates imagery, IMINT, and geospatial information?
GEOINT
(008) Analysts in which of the following fields determine communication networks and operating characteristics using intercepted signals?
1N4X1
(099) _____ outlines measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons access to information derived from telecommunications and to ensure the authenticity of those communications.
COMSEC
(009) Who is the FDO and what is their responsibility?
the official person authorized to disclose or deny classified military information in accordance with National Disclosure Policy 1?
(009) Which of the following is NOT when a safe or padlock combination must be changed?
When a person has first been given the combination
(009) Regardless of the classification of material to be destroyed, which of the following rules DOES NOT apply?
Two witnesses must be present
(010) Approximately every ___ minutes, allow your eyes to refocus on another object at least ___ feet away.
20, 25
(010) A properly configured workstation includes which ergonomic feature?
Lower Back: supported by chair
(010) Which lifting technique will help support you back?
Tuck your pelvis under and firm up your stomach muscles
(007) Which title of the US Code outlines the role of the armed forces?
TITLE 10
(007) Who is charged with providing, managing, and coordination the response of the federal government to terrorist attacks and major disasters, whether natural or man-made?
Department of Homeland Security
(007) Who is charged with coordinating and supervising all agencies and functions of the government relating directly to national security and the military?
Department of Defense
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