What organization is responsible for maintaining the central TO file?
Why do ALCs use allowance standards?
To determine which units should receive equiptment and just how much.
When may a 5-skill level be considered for sueprvisory duties?
After they have attended ALS.
When, if ever, may a 3-skill level apprentice perform a task unsupervised?
Once the person is trained and qualified to perform the task unsupervised, unless prohibited by safety or security requirements.
Name the three general functional areas of the 2W career field?
Munitions systems, aircraft armament, and nuclear weapons.
What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would damage the US war-fighting capability?
Why are job descriptions identified in the AFECD general in nature?
They apply to a wide range of jobs within the careerfield and don’t include all duties and responsibilites.
What duties and responsivilities for specific skill levels of a specialty are not described in the AFECD?
Unique base and MAJCOM requirements.
Why is it important for you to be familiar with the duties of all the subdivisions of the 2W career field?
Because they interrelate with the ammo career field.
Identify the subdivisions of the 2W career field (excluding 2W0X1) and their specific responsibilities.
Aircraft Armament – loading and unloading nuclear and non nuclear munitions, explosives, and propellant devices on aircraft. Nuclear Weapons – performs and mananges maintenance, storage, inspection, modification, accountability, and repair of nuclear weapons.
What AFSC is assigned to personnel while in basic training?
New airmen who have completed basic training are assigned what title and AFS code in the 2W0 career field until they are upgraded to the 3-skill level?
2W011, Munitions Systems Helper.
What AFS identifies a semi-skilled individual?
Whose responsibility is it to maintain qualification in a given specialty?
What are the duties and responsibilites of a 2W071?
Supervise assigned personnel and operations in performance and plan munitions material management repsonsibilites.
What is the minimum grade requirement for the award of the 7-skill level?
E-5, staff sergeant.
At what point up the 2W0 career ladder does the supervisory level begin?
Munitions systems superintendents are usually in what grade or grades?
E-8, Senior Master Sergeant.
What title and AFS code is assigned to a 2W0 who has reached the top of the career ladder?
2W000, Munitions Systems Manager (CEM).
Who has the overall responsibility for the management of the CFETP?
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
What conference is used to revise or change the CFETP?
Utilization and Training workshop (U+TW).
Where is the U usually held?
Ammo schoolhouse at Sheppard Air Force Base, TX.
If you want to find the career field progression requirements, to what section of the CFETP Part I would you refer?
What is the minimum length of time a trainee must spend in on-the-job training before being upgraded to the 5-skill level?
How many functional areas does a trainee need to be certified on to upgrade to the 5-skill level, 7-skill level, and 9-skill level?
5 level – 1. 7 level – 2. 9 level – 4.
What section of the CFETP Part II identifies the STS?
What section of the CFETP Part II identifies the core task table used by supervisors for upgrade requirements?
When the STS is placed in AF Form 623, what does it become?
Job Qualification Standard.
List the four qualifications a supervisor must have concerning explosive safety.
Knowledge of all hazards involved, convey emergency procedures to visitors and workers, maintain strict housekeeping standards, and know what steps to take when abnormal conditions arise.
Who is responsible for making certain that all maintenance documentation is complete and accurate?
The work center supervisor.
What is the purpose of red symbols?
To alert users and maintenance techs about the status of an item of equiptment.
Who establishes the basic concepts and policies for munitions?
How are MAJCOMs organized in the United States?
By functional basis.
How are MAJCOMs organized overseas?
By geographic basis.
During contingency operations, who establishes lower echelon ammunition control points?
TACPs operate at what level?
The MAJCOM level.
What supports smaller geographic areas within the theater?
Regional Ammunition Control Points.
Which MAJCOM manages munitions sustainment organizations?
Air Force Material Command (HQ AFMC).
Name the two control points HQ AFMC establishes entities.
AF ACP and AF TMCP.
Which control point is responsible for managing the APF?
Ammunitions Control Point.
Which Control point manages the Air Superiority Missile inventory?
Tactical Missle Control Point.
Explain the structure of a typical wing in descending order.
numbered AF -> wing -> group -> squadron -> flight ->section -> elements.
Which type of wing is capable of self-support in functional areas like maintenance, supply, and munitions?
Which organization is a level just below the wing with approximentally 500 to 2,000 people?
How is a typical munitions flight broken down?
Into 3 sections, productions, systems, material, then into elements.
What is the purpose of the logistics system?
To create and sustain force generation capabilities whenever and wherever needed to conduct military operations.
If a Maintenance Squadron exceeds 700 authorized positions, who may authorize it to be split up into Equiptment Maintenance Squadron and a Component Maintenance Squadron?
What organizational element has the basic responsibility of quality maintenance?
Who develops and publishes unit movement control procedures?
What is the title of the person that is responsible to the assigned commander and is the appointing official for the effective and efficient management of the munitions stockpile?
Who must ensure that the element Master Training Plans cover peacetime and contingency tasks?
Munitions Flight Section Chiefs.
Who must establish and maintain a hazardous waste program?
Munitions flight section cheifs.
Who must enforce supply dicipline in a typical munitions activity?
In a typical munitions activity, who must ensure pre-task safety briefings are accomplished before the start of any munitions operation?
Munitions crew chiefs.
In a typical munitoins activity, who focuses on flight line munitions support by using resources effetively and communicates with munitions control, flight line activities, and munitions tow-teams to meet all munitions requirements?
In a typical munitions activity, what section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers?
In a typical munitions activity, what section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions activities and in-process accountable transactions in CAS whne relayed from other munitions activities?
In a typtical munitions activity, what section receives stores, warehouses, handles, breaks out, inspects, ship, inventories, transports, disposes locally, and processes transactions in CAS for conventional munitions, containers, dispensers, and training?
What is the key to any sucessful military operation?
A well-thought out plan of operation.
What is an OPLAN?
Operational plan, any plan, except SIOP, for the conduct of military operations.
Within which annex listed in the OPLAN would you find non-nuclear munitions requirements?
a. annex d b. annex 3 c. michkey d. richy
What is the IGESP?
In garrison expeditionary site plan, used for locations with a permanent AF presence. Is fully developed by planning efforts of many functional experts.
What is the ESP?
Expeditionary site plan, used with locations w/o permanent site plans.
What is the MEP?
Munitions Employment Plan, tailored specifically to munitions operations to support the OPLAN taskings.
What are some of the resources to consider during a site survey?
Facilities, vehicles, age, mmhe, tools and equipt, communications.
What is the formula to compute the daily consumption rate of munitions?
primary aircraft authorization (PAA) X sortie rate (SR) X standard config load (SCL) X expenditure per sortie factor (EPSF).
Who authorizes the actual execution of a plan?
The national command authority (NCA).
What initiates the supporting and supported command to develop a course of action?
A warning order.
When is an ALERTORD issued?
If a situation requires execution planning after the warning order or planning order is issued.
Who is authorized to issue the EXORD, and what is its purpose?
Secretary of Defense, directs the deployment or employment of forces.
List two of the benefits that contamination avoidance provides.
Increasing survivability and reducing time personnel are required to wear protective clothing.
When notified of an attack, what should you do with your assets and why?
More assests into igloos or other large facilities to protect from contamination.
If overhead protection is not available, what can you use to protect critical assets?
Use barrier materials to protect critical assets.
Who must ensure requirements for permanently covered bomb build areas, vehicle/AGE storage shelters, and covered munitions trailer holding areas are developed and constructed?
Commanders and munitions officers/flight chiefs.
Which munitions flight element serves as the UCC?
List two items that controlling activities should do when operating in a contaminated environment.
1. ensure contaminated areas and equiptment are conspiculously marked. 2. Limit personnel movement to only those conducting critical mission operations.
What chemical decomanination kit is used on equiptment and munitions?
Why should the decontamination of munitions assets begin as soon as possible after an attack?
To achieve the highest precentage or decon effectiveness.
What can be used to remove chemical agents in dust form?
A 5% chlorine solution.
What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would result in great harm to strategic capability of the US?
What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the US?
What protection level is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of PL1, PL2, or PL3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force?
Name the four areas where you might work.
restricted areas, controlled areas, national defense areas, close-in security areas.
What distance is a boundary for a close-in security area from the resource?
no closer than 10 ft, no greater than 60 ft, unless IDS is installed.
Who can be an armed guard for the entry control point of a munitions storage area?
Security Forces of a fellow munitions journeyman.
Give an example of when a NDA may be used?
If military aircraft needed to be directed to a civilian airport.
What must you have prior to being authorized regular access to a security area?
Regular need for entry into the area.
What munitions items are assigned CIIC, and what is the intended purpose of the codes?
All munitions items, to identify the security that must be applied while the item is in storage or transit.
What are the four categories of the CIICs?
classified, sensitive, pilferable, unclassified.
Who assigns CIICs to munitions items?
The item manager.
What type of items fall into the sensative catagory, and what type of protection and control is required?
Arms, ammo, explosives, non-nuclear missiles and rockets in ready to fire config, drugs, controlled substances, material requires a high degree of protection and control.
What type of items fall into the pilferage category, and what type of protection and control is required?
These items require special control to prevent pilferage, aircraft engines, tools, firearms, ammo and explosives, individual clothing and equiptment, office machines, photographic equiptment, comm parts, vehicle equiptment.
What type of items fall into very-high risk category I?
Complete portable man made non-nuclear missiles and rockets (i.e. redeye, stinger, LAW).
What type of items fall into low-risk category IV?
man operated shoulder fired weapons, handguns, ammo w/ non-explosive projectile, fuzes, riot control agents.
What are the two conditions required for an OPSEC vulnerability?
1. a weakness that could reveal critical information 2. An adversary with both intent and capability to exploit that weakness.
List three operations indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
specialized training, specialized equiptment, rehersals of operations.
List three communications indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
power sources, call signs, transmitter locations.
List three administrative indicators of OPSEC vulnerability.
List the major goals of the AF nuclear surety program.
To achieve maximum safety consistent with operational requirements, maintain record of 0 accidental or unauthorized nuclear yields, and reduce potential for nuclear mishaps.
What are the criteria for the selection and retention of individuals who work around nuclear weapons per AFI 36-2104?
Individuals are emotionally stable and have demonstrated good judgement and professional competence.
What are the two PRP positions?
Critical and controlled.
Who is responsible for the certification of personnel into the PRP?
List three mandatory selection requirements a person must meet prior to being placed in a PRP posistion.
No history of drug abuse, US citizen or US national, and have a required security clearance.
Where does the authority originate for the Air Force to develop its mishap prevention program?
federal law and DOD directives and instructions.
What sections can make up the safety branch at a flying unit?
Ground, Flight, Missile, Explosive, and nuclear safety.
What is the primary function of the safety office?
To provide a central point of expertise in flight, ground and weapons safety.
Who is responsible for enforcing all safety requirements and standards within their specific area or activity?
Who is responsible for understanding and observing the safety standards that have been established to prevent injury to themselves and others, or damage to equiptment and property?
What are the two major categories of human factors contributing to hazards in the work place?
Mental and physical.
What is the primary cause of common materials handling injuries such as strains, sprains, fractures, and bruises?
Unsafe work practices.
What is the primary cause of common materials handling injuries such as strains, sprains, fractures, and bruises?
Unsafe work practices.
What is the best way to reduce back injuries?
Reduce exposure to lifting.
Explain the main purpose of vegetation control.
Limit the probability of conbustable vegetation causing an unacceptable hazard to munitions in storage.
What is the fire extinguisher requirement for an explosive laden vehicle?
Two 2A:10BC fire extinguishers.
What is static electricity?
A hazard created when charges accumulate to the point where an uncontrolled discharge occurs through, or in the presence of, a hazardous substance susceptible to initiation.
What criterion is used to subdivide ammunition and explosives into hazard classes?
The nature of the hazard and its potential for injury or damage.
The DOD hazard classification system is based on the system recommended for the international use by which organization?
The United Nations.
What are the principle hazards of hazard class/division 1.1?
The blast and mass detonation.
Explain which type of items fall into hazard class/division 1.5?
Very insensative items which have a mass explosive hazard.
What form is used to report a hazard?
AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report (HR).
Which TO will help you find another TO by using an alphabetical listing?
Which TO WP contains packaging requirements?
What is the basic concept of explosive safety?
preventing the premature, unintentional or unauthorized initiation of explosives and devices containing explosives and minimizing the effects of explosions, combustion, toxicity and other harmful effects.
Where do you find the criteria for specific munitions and operations?
Technical publications and other standard publications, such as command and local directives.
What is the purpose behind the development of local written explosive operations procedures?
When explosives opereations are not covered in sufficient detail by other standard publications.
What is the purpose of the pre-task safety briefing?
To ensure all operating personnel have the same degree of knowledge regarding the task.
What is the minimum withdrawal distance of HC/D 1.2 items involved in a fire?
Besides the missile itself, what other items should be considered under missile safety for their mishap potential?
Ground support and operational requirements, personnel, and the operational environment.
What must be followed to provide safe operations within the missile environment?
A positive mishap prevention program.
Why are FFOs so hazardous?
Because of their directional response and potentially long range effect if activated.
Intrinsic Radiation, the ionizing radiation emitted from the radioactive materials in the compounds of a nuclear weapon.
Who must comply with the ALARA concept?
Units with a nuclear contingency or limited nuclear mission.
List the primary methods to achieve the ALARA concept.
Minimize the time spent near nuclear weapons, increase personnel distance from weapons systems, use shielding, take a combination of these actions.
What are the radiation limits for occupationally exposed workers and pregnant females?
Workers: 5 rems/year. Pregnant females: 500 mrems/year during pregnancy.
When engineering design cannot reduce radiation exposure to acceptable levels, what other methods are used?
Personal protective procedures and administrative controls.
List four ways to reduce the time spend near nuclear weapons.
planning work before operation, gathering necessary tools, tech data, and materials before working, avoid unnecessary work near weapons, and consolidate work.
Normally, who conducts the ASC review, and who is involved?
The MAJCOM, the subject matter experts.
What form is used to increase or decrease allowance standards?
AF IMT 601.
What are the two advantages of establishing a bench stock?
1. Required items are on hand. 2. Maintenance personnel have control of their material.
What are the two disadvantages of establishing a bench stock?
1. Shop where supply is located must provide a secure location. 2. Unit funds must be spent to set up holding bins and cabinets for bench stock items.
Each item approved for bench stock is assigned a 14-digit document number consisting of what elements of data?
Activity code, organizational code, shop code, date of last demand, item number.
MRA and MAQ are terms associated with bench stock items when stock levels are not determined by what method?
Levels not based on consumption.
How often should bench stock items be replenished?
When the quantity on hand is equal or less than 50% of the authorized amount.
Who has the responsibility to keep government property in operational and in the best possible condition?
All AF members.
What are two requirements a container must meet before it is considered reusable?
1. Have all its components and be in good repair. 2. Protect unserviceable items against further deterioration.
Long-life containers should withstand at least how many trips?
At least 100.
Short-life containers should withstand at least how many trips?
At least 10.
When does a reusable container lose its identity?
When it contains munitions or missile items.
How many spare containers should a unit retain?
Enough to break down all built up complete rounds.
What is the purpose of maintenance date collection?
To provide maintenance managers at all levels with information on jobs performed by each organization or work center.
How does analysis of the collected data assist managers?
To ID problem areas.
Where would you look to find rules and procedures concerning data management?
TO 00-20-2, maintenance documentation, AFI 21 series, and MAJCOM implementing directives.
Name the MDD system used at most bases to document daily maintenance actions.
Integrated maintenance data system (IMDS).
What are the for terms used to describe the types of maintenance performed on munitions equipment?
Preventative, periodic, unscheduled, and in-process/end-item inspections.
Which type of maintenance is performed after a specified period of miles or hours of operation are completed against a vehicle or piece of equipment?
Which type of maintenance are you following when you are following a TCTO?
Which type of maintenance is performed when it is not predicted, planned, or programmed?
What is the purpose of an AFTO IMT 95?
To maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions for support equipment, training equipment, and other components.
What should you annotate in the “remarks” block of AFTO IMT 95?
A lifetime profile of a piece of equipment.
What information is recorded on AFTO IMT 244?
maintenance, inspection, and historical data for support equipment and training equipment.
How are name entries made on AFTO IMT 244?
First name initial, last name, and employee number.
Name the three red symbols from the most serious condition to the least serious condition.
RED X – Most serious condition RED – – next most serious condition RED / – least serious condition.
The ability of a system and its parts to perform its mission without failure, degradation, or demand on the support system.
The measure of the ability of an item to be retained in or restored to a specific condition when maintenance is performed by personnel having specific skills, using prescribed procedures and resources, at each prescribed level of maintenance and repair.
What is the purpose of RAMS?
To provide accurate means of assessing present performance levels.
What are the three levels of maintenance?
Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
How do failure trends fit into the RAMS program?
They can be ascertained on this system and may effect engineering changes resulting in systems improvement.
What is the purpose of TMRS?
It is the database management program used at the base level for tracking and reporting important information about tactical missiles and missile components up to the RAMS system.
Which of the following is a duty area identified in the 7-skill level specialty description?
Plans munitions materiel management functions.
What publication is the governing directive of hazardous materials movement by military air?
Each munitions account prepares a list of personnel authorized to receive DOE classified property. How often is this letter submitted to DOE?
Annually or as changes occur.
Which annex of the OPLAN includes plans to move in-theater munitions susceptible to attack?
Logistics (Annex D).
What is the purpose of the Air Force Hazard Communication Program?
To reduce the incidence of chemically induced illness and injuries.
What agency or organization develops and submits a consolidated Air Munitions Forecast (peacetime conventional ammunitions requirements) to OO-ALC/LIW for approval?
Where can you find the information to move in-theater munitions susceptible to attack?
The logistics annex (D) of the OPLAN.
Before a person is awarded a 5-skill level, he or she must complete CDCs, meet the mandatory experience requirements outlined in AFMAN 36-2108 and?
be qualified to perform the tasks required for the duty position.
On what bases and where is the Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3) in use?
At both US and Allied European tactical bases.
What is the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
To help you understand how to work safely in your area with chemicals.
What type of items fall into low risk category IV?
up to and including 90mm, ammunition with nonexplosive projectiles, fuzes other than for grenades, illumination, smoke and practice grenades, CS/CN grenades, riot control agents (100lbs. packaged or less).
The width of a firebreak for each potential explosive site (PES) must be at least?
The maintenance data collection system is described as a system?
with a collection process, a storage process and a retrieval process.
Which condition code applies if an item is issueable with qualifications?
Condition code B.
What must you do to the old munitions identification before you can certify the container empty?
Obliterate only the old munitions identification markings.
What T.O. describes the procedures used to inspect empty containers?
What is an advantage to establishing a bench stock?
The required items are on hand instead of in base supply.
Which items are considered shop stock?
Arming wire, safety clips and ferrules.
What do you call a group of XB3 items kept on hand in a work center to enhance productivity?
How are items that have had their explosive material replaced with non-explosive material be marked?
The word “INERT” impressed and stenciled on it.
Which of the following is considered a category II DR?
A product deficiency attributable to errors in workmanship.
What is the responsibilities of WR-ALC/LKG (USAF TMCP)?
Air-Intercept Missiles (AIM) and Air-to-Ground (AGM) tactical missile matters, except for the AGM-65, AGM-84 and AGM-130 missile.
Which of the following is a packaging discrepancy?
Container markings incorrect.
What major command is responsible for research, development, testing and logistically supporting every Air Force weapons system?
Air Force Material Command (AFMC).
What is the minimum distance between potential explosion sites to prevent one from simultaneously detonating the other?
What are air transportable quantities of specific munitions to support tactical fighter and reconnaissance aircraft for a limited amount of time called?
Under shop stock control, you may keep no more than?
10 percent of the approved peacetime annual allocation.
Munitions are picked up on accountable records within how many workdays of arrival on station?
What document provides the Air Staff and Air Force commanders with current policies and planning factors for conducting and supporting wartime operations?
USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
What should you annotate in the |”Remarks”| block on an AFTO Form 95?
Include any conditions that could have a bearing on future maintenance of the equipment.
What is meant when it is said an organization is “authorized” to obtain specified munitions assets?
Authorized means that there must be a written order, regulation, operations plan or another authorization for the requirement of the munitions.
Generally speaking, “supply discipline” refers to?
asset control and documentation.
What are the two major goals of the Air Force nuclear surety program?
To maintain our ZERO record of accidental or unauthorized nuclear yield and to reduce the potential for the possible effects of nuclear mishaps.
When deployed, how soon does the MASO send the first report to the TACP or the RACP?
Within 2 days of arrival at the deployed location.
What inspection is documented in part IV of AFTO Form 244?
Inspection of the AFTO Form 244.
Which inspection provides a high degree of confidence that the munitions have not been adversely affected by the environment, storage, age, or use?
What does the maintenance supply interface subsystem provide?
the capability to order parts against the performing or owning work center.
Who is responsible at the deployed location to perform a physical inventory and establish accountable records for deployed munitions?
What is the mission of CCAF?
The CCAF provides the opportunity to obtain an Associate in Applied Science Degree in Munitions Systems Technology.
It is the mission of which MAJCOM to prepare for war and support US national security objectives?
How is the AFTO form 350 used after a repair is done?
It is used to provide information for completion of AFTO Form 349 and information for input of repaircycle data into the supply system.
What are the time requirements for overseas bases to submit there quarterly timer change requisitions to the 00-ALC?
Between 90 and 120 calendar days before the next calendar year quarter.
What is the major advantage of HQ AMC?
What order establishes the time of execution and provides the latest guidance concerning the overall situation?
Each remark entered on an AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data, is proceeded by the date of inspection or maintenance action and suffix with the name of the?
organization making the entry.
Who has the responsibility to delete a person from the AF Form 68, Munitions Authorization Record?
All adjustments that require a report of survey for relief of accountability are certified by the MASO and approved by the?
MXG commander or equivalent.
When the munitions accountable files cannot be secured behind a lockable door, what other place can the files be stored?
Who is tasked to deploy with munitions when a mobility or an OPLAN is implemented?
Primary or alternate account custodian.
Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) and maximum authorized quantity (MAQ) are terms associated with bench stock items when stock levels are not determined by what method?
When levels are not based on normal consumption of the item(s).
How is the appropriate physical security measures determined?
Basis of local security threat assessments, storage facility configuration and the type of WRM stored.
What is the objective of execution planning?
To complete the planning and action necessary to convert an OPLAN to an OPORD at a designated time.
Who has the basic responsibility of quality maintenance?
Individual maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders.
What serves as the official document developed by each MAJCOM portraying actual munitions requirements for each base?
War Consumables Distribution Objective.
Who has the overall responsibility to ensure the condition and readiness of the WRM assets?
Maintenance group commander.
Who authorizes certain personnel to receipt and sign for munitions items?
Who has the responsibility to manage and maintain worldwide visibility of the munitions stockpile?
Air Logistic Centers.
Who repairs specialized short-life containers?
User or packaging personnel.
How does a base change its annual allocations?
What is a conventional munitions plan?
Who maintains waiver authority in the event an individual selected to become a certified munitions inspector can not attend the munitions inspector course?
What is intrinsic radiation?
Ionizing radiation emitted from the radioactive materials in the components of a nuclear weapon; radiation inherent to the design of nuclear weapons.