CDC 3A051

Commanders and staff agency chiefs take what type of program to protect the rights of the government and persons directly affected by Air Force actions?

 

A. Strong senior leaders

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B. Monthly destruction efforts

C. Records management program

D. Efficient information management procedures

C. Records management program

How often must the command records manager review each base records management program?

 

A. Every 12 months

B. Every 18 months

C. Every 24 months

D. Every 36 months

C. Every 24 months

Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official reccords must be trained within…

 

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 4 months

D. 6 months

B. 3 Months

Who maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records?

 

A. Records custodian

B. Base records manager

C. Chief of office of record

D. Functional area records manager

A. Records custodian

What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?

 

A. Plan of action

B. Memo for record

C. Air Force instruction

D. Headquarters operating instructions

A. Plan of action

Where should copies of vital records be stored?

 

A. Federal records center that services your area

B. At the MAJCOM headquarters or parent organization

C. Another office in the same facility that is not accessible to the general public

D. Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible

D. Faciility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible

What is specifically responsible for automating the preparation and maintenance of the files maintenance and disposition plan?

 

A. Electronic transaction system

B. Air Force records disposition schedule

C. Air Force records management program

D. Air Force records information management system

D. Air Force recods information management system

The records information management system’s files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except…

;

A. the record’s cutoff period

B. the disposition authorities

C. the location of each record series

D. all record series for the office of record

A. the record’s cutoff period

What type of labels does the records information management system print?

;

A. File drawer

B. Subdivision

C. Locator guide card

D. Decision logic table

B. Subdivision

What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?

;

A. Finding the table and rule for each recordseries

B. Getting your office in the records information management system

C. Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining

D. Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet

C.Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining

What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?

;

A. File folders

B. Subdivision labels

C. Locator guide card

D. Disposition guide card

D. Disposition guide cards

;When more than one item number is kept in the same file, disposition control labels are placed on…

;

A. the same guide card

B. separate guide cards

C. the first record in the file

D. the interior of the file folder

A. the same guide card

Where are labels placed on the file folders?

;

A. On the left

B. On the right

C. Consistently

D. In the corner

C. Consistently

Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?

;

A. The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01

B. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently

C. It’s the table of contents for the filing system

D. The filing system doesn’t identify the file plan

B. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently

What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?

;

A. File plan

B. Directory

C. Memo for record

D. Cross-reference sheet

D. Cross-reference sheet

What must you use to control the loan of records?

;

A. Air Force Form 614, Charge Out Record

B. Air Force Form 845, Cross-Connection Information

C. Department of Defense Form 2861, Cross-Reference

D. Air Force Form 388, Communication Control Record

A. Air Force Form 614, Charge Out Record

What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?

;

A. Period of time the record is needed

B. Number of copies the individual will make

C. Determine how many people will have access to the records

D. Frequency of reference to teh requested material

A. Period of time the record is needed

Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except…

;

A. physically stop adding records to a series

B. separating active records from inactive records

C. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area

D. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file

C. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area

On what is disposition based?

;

A. Time period or event

B. Specific action or disposition

C. Disposal method or time period

D. Retention period or specific action

A. Time period or event

How does the records disposition program play a key role in the; management of Air Force records?

;

A. Preservation of classified records

B. Economic and efficient management

C. Eduring value for temporary records

D. Reference tools for commander’s decisions

B. Economic and efficient management

Who is authorized ot approve the permanent retention of records?

 

A. Air Force records manager

B. Airchivist of the United States

C.  United States records manager

D. National archives and records administration

B. Archivist of the United States

When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are…

 

A. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period

B. cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity

C. cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual

D. continued and cutoff the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured

D. continued and cutoff the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred

Who does the OPR submit and AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation to?

 

A. Records manager

B. Records custodian

C. Command records manager

D. Functional area records manager

A. Records manager

What type of records does the staging area store?

 

A. Perpetual and temporary

B. Perpetual and transitory

C. Permanent and temporary

D. Permanent and transitory

C. Permanent and temporary

How much remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?

 

A. 2 years or more

B. 3 years or more

C. 8 years or more

D. 9 years or more

B. 3 years or more

What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?

 

A. Records for transfer to another organization only

B. Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only

C. Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only

D. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization

D. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization

What should be done when shipping classified nad unclassified records?

 

A. Seperate the records before shipping

B. Combine the records to save on shipping cost

C. Classified records cannot be ship from a deployed location

D. Combine the records and annotate the records transmittal and receipt form

A. Seperate the records before shipping

How are electronic records maintained in a deployed location?

 

A. According to each individual computer user

B. According to the records disposition schedule

C. As described in the vital records operating plan

D. In accordance with the DOD electronic records disposition tables

B. According to the records disposition schedule

What does the staging area reviews to determine what records are eligible for disposal?

 

A.Disposition control label

B. Records disposition schedule

C. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt

D. AF IMT 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

C. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt

How are magnetic medium and tapes disposed of?

 

A. Degauss or overwrite

B. Through the base recycling program

C. Return to the communications squadron for destruction

D. Through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office

A. Degauss or overwrite

To recycle Privacy Act material, what must recycling contracts include?

 

A. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction

B. Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials

C. Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination

D. Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials

A.  Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction

Data in a form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisfies the legal definitino of a record is a/an…

 

A. analog record

B. computer record

C. electronic record

D. controlled record

C. electronic record

Who places official records in electronic file areas?

 

A. Users

B. Records Custodian

C. Base records manager

D. Functional area records manager

A. Users

Who should read-only records access rights be given to?

 

A. Only records custodians

B. Official electronic records managers

C. Personnel who have a need to know

D. No one, records cannot be marked as read only in electronic records management

C. Personnel who have a need to know

How must your electronic and paper filing systems function?

 

A. Jointly

B. Independent

C. Electronic systems must be sand-alone computer systems

D. Paper systems may not duplicate any portion of the electronic system

A. Jointly

What is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?

 

A. $5,000

B. $10,000

C. $15,000

D. $20,000

 

A. $5,000

To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collections and reports management programs’…

;

A. goal

B. mission

C. purpose

D. objective

C. purpose

What is the fundamental policy for information collections and reports?

;

A. Establish procedures for all collection actions

B. Collect information through formal reports

C. Assign internal reprots control symbol

D. Control and minimize the burden

D. Control and minimize the burden

What do the letters and numbers of a reports control symbol indicate?

;

A. The report has been reviewed and approved

B. The validity of the report and expiration date

C. The category of the report and its submission timeline

D. The frequency of submission and the approval authority

A. The report has been reviewed and approved

What is the most effective and economical way to state policies and procedures?

;

A. E-mail

B. Publications

C. Intern messages

D. Official memorandums

B. Publications

As technology advances, to what type of publishing system is the Air Force migrating?

;

A. DOD-wide

B. Air Force wide

C. Joint publications

D. Electronic publications

A. DOD-wide

Who evaluates and approves request to establish special publication systems?

;

A. Local commander

B. Publications manager

C. Office of primary responsibility

D. Functional are records manager

B. Publications manager

As a rule, how many days is the maximum a temporary visual aid should be displayed?

;

A. 30

B. 60

C. 90

D. 120

C. 90

When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?

;

A. Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications

B. Mission-related need only

C. Defense automated printing serive approval and access to an official electronic source of publications

D. Access to an official electronic source of publications

B. Mission-related need only

In which section of Part I of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find general information?

;

A. Section A

B. Section B

C. Section C

D. Section D

D. Section D

Which distribution symbol is for classified publications and stocked and issued by the OPR?

;

A. F

B. L

C. X

D. None, classified publications have no distribution symbol

C. X

What type of distribution will not be placed on the Air Force publishing web site?

;

A. F and L

B. L and X

C. F and X

D. F, X, and L

B. L and X

Which distribution symbol is the most widely used?

;

A. F

B. L

C. X

D. F, X

A. F

When a basic directive is superseded, its supplement…

;

A. is destroyed

B. is superseded also

C. automatically stays in affect

D. is posted to the new pulication

C. automatically stays in affect

When would a biennial review not be required?

;

A. Never, biennial reviews are always required

B. If a special review was performed within the last 90 days

C. If the publication has been identified to be revised

D. If the publication has been identified to be rescinded

B. If a special review was performed within the last 90 days

What does the Air Force forms management program provide to help management capture information?

;

A. Data collection tools

B. Standard data elemets

C. Analytical data formats

;D. Most efficient way possible

A. Data collection tools

In which section of; Part II of the product announcement would you information on salvage, disposa, or replacement?

;

A. Section A

B. Section B

C. Section C

D. Section D

B. Section B

Who establishes standards and methods for analyzing, categorizing, designing, controlling, producing, and maintaining all departmental forms?

;

A. Air Force forms manager

B. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office

C. Air Force Departmental Publishing Center

D. Director of communications and information

B. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office

Who has the responsibility to conduct a forms review every 2 years based on the creation date of a form?

;

A. Major command

B. Base forms manager

C. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

D. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office

C. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

What type of form is used in two or more staff offices of a headquarters?

;

A. Field

B. Office

C. Headquarters

D. Departmental

C. Headquarters

Which of the following is not a basis for a form’s biennial review?

 

A. Date of creation

B. Revision of form

C. Date electronically released

D. Revision of prescribing directives

 C. Date electronically released

Who initiates special and reprint forms reviews on an "as needed" basic?

 

A. OPR

B. Forms manager

C. Records manager

D. Publishing distribution office

B. Forms manager

What type of IMT change affect the visual and physical image?

 

A. Master

B. Routine

C. Version

D. Revision

D. Revision

How should responses to requests for information from news media representatives be handled?

 

A. Discouraged to eliminate privacy act violations

B. Discouraged so they can then follow the proper FOIA channel

C. Encouraged to invoke the information collection reports control system

D. Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA

D. Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA

Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a FOIA request?

 

A. Office of primary responsibility

B. Disclosure authority

C. FOIA manager

D. Requestor

C. FOIA manager

Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?

 

A. FOIA manager

B. System manager

C. Installation commander

D. Director, communication and information

A. FOIA manager

When are fees for FOIA request automatically waived?

 

A. All assessable costs are $15.00 or less

B. A new record is compiled for the requestor

C. Only a portion of the requested records are released

D. The requestor has applied for a fee waiver/reduction

A. All assessable costs are $15.00 or less

When must components provide a final response to a FOIA reques that complies with the requesting requirements?

 

A. 10 working days

B. 20 working days

C. 10 calendar days

D. 20 calendar days

B. 20 working days

Which of the following is not a FOIA exemption?

 

A. Financial institutions

B. Investigative records

C. Administrative rules and practices

D. Internal personnel rules and practices

C. Administrative rules and practices

Who, on base, completes the DD Form 2564, Annual Report Freedom of Information Act?

 

A. Records OPR

B. Base FOIA manager

C. Organizational commanders

D. Director, communication and information

B. Base FOIA manager

Privacy Act officers are responsible for…

 

A. deciding the need for and content of systems

B. preparing system notices and reports

C. answering the privacy act requests

D. investigating complaints

D. investigating complaints

Who is the focal point in a functional area for general privacy act questions?

 

A. System manager

B. Privacy act officer

C. Privacy act monitor

D. Air Force employees

C. Privacy act monitor

What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act records?

 

A. Official

B. Directed

C. Functional

D. Informationall

C. Functional

Which element of a Privacy Act statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD?

 

A. Purpose

B. Authority

C. Disclosure

D. Routine Uses

D. Routine Uses

What penalty can be imposed on an individual for making an unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act information?

 

A. $5,000

B. $10,000

C. $5,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment

D. $10,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment

A. $5,000 fine

Which type of personal information can be given to the third parties without the individuals consent?

 

A. Marital status

B. Home of record

C. Past duty assignments

D. Gross salary of military personnel

C. Past duty assignments

What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act information?

 

A. Release information only to senior NCOs and officers

B. Question all requestors on the purpose of the request

C. Use additional security measures, regardless of cost

D. Verify the identity of all requestors

D. Verify the identity of all requestors

What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act records?

 

A. For Official Use Only register

B. Squadron policy

C. Records retention schedule

D. Privacy act disposition list

C. Records retention schedule

Why is a transfer of large quantities of Privacy Act records in bulk to the defense reutilization and marketing office not considered a release of personal information?

 

A. The contract covers transfer of Privacy Act information

B. Defense reutilization and marketing office is a government agency

C. Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific indiviual records

D. All defense reutilization and marketing office personnel are designated representatives

C. Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records

When are For Official Use Only records marked?

 

A. When they are created

B. In review for release

C. Ony when they are sent off base

D. When someone asks to see the markings

A. When they are created

What exemptions must information marked FOUO meets under the freedom of information act or it cannot be withheld?

 

A. 1 and 9

B. 1 through 9

C. 2 and 9

D. 2 through 9

D. 2 through 9

What protection is applied to FOUO documents during normal duty hours?

 

A. Place them in an out-of-sight location

B. Cover them with a classified cover sheet

C. Lock them in a classified storage container

D. Personnel shoudl keep them in their possession at all times

A. Place them in an out-of-sight location

What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occur?

 

A. Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization

B. Apppropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, discilinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization

C. Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization

D. Notify originatin organization, follow guidance provided by that organiztion, and investigate all events that led to the occurrence

B. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization

On the average, about what percentage of a communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effective?

 

A. 15

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

D. 75

In order to deliver a clear message, you should use sentences that are no longer than…

 

A. 15 words

B. 20 words

C. 30 words

D. 40 words

D. 40 words

What is the main difference between an official memorandum and a personal folder?

 

A. Audience

B. Content

C. Format

D. Style

C. Format

What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?

 

A. Brief

B. Official

C. Explanatory

D. Separate page

D. Separate page

Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are…

 

A. briefings

B. position papers

C. background papers

D. memorandums for record

C. background papers

Who is responsible for safeguarding his or her common access care and the personnel identification number?

 

A. User

B. Commander

C. Security Officer

D. System administrator

A. User

Who ensures that action offices package and address communications correctly and that essential mailing elements stand out?

 

A. Base information transfer center

B. Activity distribution office

C. Official mail manager

D. Activity action office

B. Activity distribution office

What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD’ that remain in action offices at the close of business?

;

A. Place in an opaque container and have the highest-rank individual take it home

B. Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordinly

C. Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding

D. Seal container and store in a classified storage container

B. Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly

Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents?

;

A. Priorit

B. First class

C. Periodicals

D. Standard mail

C. Periodicals

What type of security classification involves information that is extracted or paraphrased?

;

A. Original

B. Compiled

C. Derivative

D. Consolidated

C. Derivative

Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?

;

A. Processor

B. Commander

C. Security manager

D. Original classifier

A. Processor

Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?

;

A. Custodians

B. Commanders

C. Information managers

D. Top Secret control officers

A. Custodians

What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?

;

A. Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with the highest rank

B. Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container

C. Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet

D. Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container

C. Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet

The purpose of conducting end-of-day security checks in units that process classified information is to ensure…

;

A. the facility is locked

B. classified accounts are inventoried

C. all checklists are properly initialed

D. classified information is stored appropriately

D. classified information is stored appropriately

What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?

;

A. Sanction

B. Violation

C. Infraction

D. Compromise

B. Violation

Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?

;

A. Give information on the source

B. Provide guidance on disposition of records

C.; Alert holders to the presence of classified information

D. Show special access, control, or safeguarding requirements

B. Provide guidance on disposition of records

Where is the overall classification placed on slides and transparencies?

;

A. Image area of the item only

B. Border, holder, or frame only

C. Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame

D. Image area of the item and on the accompanying documentation

C. Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame

To help control accountable communications while in the Air Force channels, the Air Force uses…

;

A. container numbers

B. consolidated shipments

C. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request

D. AF F 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

A. container numbers

What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on the the receiver?

;

A. AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt, and AF Form 310, Accountable Container Receipt

B. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request, and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt

C. Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

D. Container numbers and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt

D. Container numbers and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt

The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them…

;

A. insured

B. express

C. certified

D. registered

D. registered

When you mail classified material, address containers to the…

;

A. Unit Top Secret control office

B.; office that is to take action on it

C. base information security program manager

;D. specific person identified as the point of contact

B. office that is to take action on it

Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?

;

A. Installation commander

B. Central destruction activity

C. Support group commander

D. Base information management

A. Installation commander
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