CDC
(001) Which of these criteria does not meet the requirements for 5-level upgrade?
Twelve months time in service (TIS)
(001) You are not eligible to begin 7-level upgrade training until you have…
Been selected for promotion to E-5, staff sargeant
(002) Who is directly responsible for the work done by shop personnel?
Aircrew flight equipment (AFE) craftsman/supervisor.
(002) Who determines facility, equipment, supply, and storage requirements for aircrew flight equipment (AFE) units?
AFE superintendent
(003) What Air Force instruction (AFI) lists your personal responsibilities to ensure that your work place is as safe as possible?
91-301
(003) When handling explosives, what is the minimum number of ABC fire extinguishers that must be readily available
Two (2)
(003) All protective equiptment must meet the standards listed by…
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) or American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
(004) A ground accident occurrence is defined as being on…
or off Air Force bases
(005) What is the maximum pounds per square inch (psi) you can use for cleaning workbenches?
30
(005) What color are carbon dioxide cylinders, other than the 12- to 28-gram size?
Gray
(005) How is a jet engine plane of rotation usually indicated on an aircraft fuselage?
A red stripe
(005) to identify groud safety pins, you must look for the attached…
Red streamer
(005) Which item may be a cause of foreign object damage (FOD)?

Dirt

Tools

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Lead Seals

All of the above

 

(005) For cleaning purposes, you should never use compressed air greater than what number of pounds per square inch (psi)?

 

 

 

30

(006) What does fire symbol three (3) indicate?

 

Facility contains ammunition and explosives capable of producing a mass fire.

 

(006) What does fire symbol four (4) indicate?

 

Facility contains ammunition and explosives capable of producing a moderate fire.

 

(006) The colors of a radiation placard are

 

magenta and yellow.

 

(007) What information does an explosive facility license contain?

 

Location and quantities of explosives authorized.

 

(008) What equipment can you as an aircrew flight equipment journeyman operate?

 

Only items you are trained and authorized to use.

 

(008) What can you do to ensure maximum benefits from tools and reduce the chances of serious injury?

 

 

 

 

 

 

Observe all safety guidelines.

 

(009) Using damaged tools is not a correct tool habit, why?

 

Damaged tools can damage the item you are working on.

 

(009) Which piece of safety equipment is used to limit damage from falling objects?

 

Safety shoes.

 

(010) What are the different types of screwdrivers normally used in an aircrew flight equipment shop?

 

 

Common, cross-tip, cross-point, offset, jeweler’s, and ratchet.

 

(010) You can identify the Phillips screwdriver by its

 

cross-tip and blunt end.

 

(010) When using a screwdriver, how can you prevent damage to the screw slot and surface of the screw head?

 

Maintain downward pressure on the screwdriver.

 

(010) What two wrenches have been combined to make up a combination wrench?

 

Open-end and box.

 

(010) You identify socket sets by their

 

drive size.

 

(010) What is one rule to follow when using an adjustable wrench to remove a nut?

 

Ensure a tight fit on the nut.

 

(010) A drift punch is used to

 

remove shafts and pins.

 

(010) What are the two types of woodworking chisels?

 

Socket and tang.

 

(010) How do you remove a hollow punch from a lead block?

 

Twist it out.

 

(011) How do you hand shears to another person?

 

Closed and offer the handle.

 

(011) What type of stone should be used to sharpen shears?

 

Fine to medium.

 

(011) If a power tape is allowed to snap back into itself, the

 

hook end can shear off.

 

(011) If a long measuring tape is allowed to sag, it

 

can increase the measurement.

 

(011) What is the purpose of an awl?

 

Find and punch holes.

 

(011) What type of hand needle is best suited for installing hidden stitches?

 

Curved.

 

(011) The parachute packing paddle (fid) can be made out of any suitable, strong, and pliable material execept

 

wood.

 

(011) What can result if you do not use stencil paper in the stencil machine?

 

The dies and punches can be dull.

 

(011) Why are shot bags brightly colored?

 

Accountability.

 

(011) What type of grommet is used for heavy-duty applications?

 

Spurred.

 

(011) What is the advantage of the portable press?

 

The ability to be used in tight places.

 

(011) Which snap fastener installation press is to be used as a last resort?

 

Portable.

 

(011) When using an adjustable snap fastener press, what distance required between the chuck and die in the press?

 

1/32 of an inch.

 

(012) Which format would normally indicate a calibration due date of 8 January 2009 on an inspection label for a test measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) item?

 

 

Julian date (09008).

 

(013) After using torque devices, what must you do with the device?

 

Set to lowest setting.

 

 

(013) What tester tests Combined Advanced Technology Enhanced Design “G” Ensemble (COMBAT EDGE) equipment but requires a compressed air or oxygen cylinder?

 

 

 


TTU–529/E.

 

(013) Which tester(s) uses a 9V battery as a power source?

 

DMH–1 and Multimeter.

 

(014) Which type of technical order (TO) do you use to find the status of all TOs within a specific TO category?

 

 

 

 

 

Index.

 

(014) Which technical order is referred to as the index of indexes?

 

0–1–01.

 

(015) While they may be printed in parts, job guides (JG) provide

 

detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.

 

(015) Technical order (TO) numbers always begin with the TO

 

category.

 

(016) Urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) must be accomplished within a maximum of how many days?

 

10.

(017) What type of technical orders (TO) establish policies and are not issued against specific military systems?

 

 

 

 

 

Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO).

 

 

 

(017) Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO) differ from TOs dealing with specific equipment because they

 

 

 

 

 

are general in nature.

 

 

 

(018) Which letter designation in the technical order (TO) number designates fighter aircraft?

 

F.

(018) The first part of a technical order (TO) numbering system identifies the

 

equipment categories.

 

(019) Which technical orders (TOs) would be found in a TO binder with a binder label reading

 

14P4–1–151 thru 15X5–4–1–101?

 

14S1–3–51.

 

(019) Changed pages of technical order (TO) page supplements (TOPS) are filed facing the

 

page containing outdated instructions.

 

(020) If you discover a deficiency in a technical order (TO), how do you correct the problem?

 

Submit an AFTO Form 22.

 

(020) Within how many calendar days after your submittal of a routine report must replies be sent?

 

 

 

 

45.

(021) What element of supply would you contact if you wanted to obtain steel-toed boots?

 

Retail sales.

 

(021) What element of supply would you contact to turn in equipment?

 

Equipment management.

 

(021) What element of supply is the first point in the process when ordering supplies?

 

Demand processing.

 

(022) The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government

 

property caused by misuse or negligence is known as what type of liability?

 

Pecuniary.

 

(022) The term “custodian” as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to a

 

caretaker.

 

(022) If property is not serviceable, it is turned in and transferred to the

 

Receipt in-place location (RIPL).

 

(023) The last nine digits of a national stock number (NSN) is known as the

 

National item identification number.

 

(024) An example of an expendable supply item would be a

 

pencil.

 

(024) What form does equipment custodians use to request turn-in of equipment on the custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA?CRL)?

 

 

 

 

 

AF Form 601 or AF Form 2005.

 

(025) Which condition tag do you use to identify a serviceable survival kit?

 

DD Form 1574.

 

(025) An HGU–55/P helmet was brought to your shop for repair; however, not all of the parts

 

have been received from supply to make the necessary repairs. What condition tag do you attach to the helmet?

 

DD Form 1577–2.

 

(026) Which supply control document lists the status of accountable and controlled assets?

 

Due-In From Maintenance Listing.

 

(026) What form do you use to temporary issue equipment?

 

AF Form 1297.

 

(027) What Air Force Instruction (AFI) requires your shop to have a budget?

 

AFI 11–301V1.

 

(027) By having a detailed budget, your shop is

 

able to justify everything you need to complete your mission.

 

(027) We write our budgets for how many fiscal years in advance?

 

One.

 

(028) The expendability, recoverability, reparability cost (ERRC) designator code that identifies due-in from maintenance (DIFM) items is

 

XD.

 

(201) How many ounces does the HGU?55/P lightweight helmet shell reduce the total weight of the helmet compared to the standard HGU?55/P helmet shell?

 

4.

 

(201) How many inch-pounds of torque, if any, do you apply to the HGU?55 helmet integrated cin and nape strap (ICNS) screws?

 

 

 

 

 

13 ± 1.

 

(201) Which lightweight visor assembly used on the HGU–55 series helmet has a viscosity of 15 to

 

25 percent color shade?

 

Gradient.

(202) What is used to clean the lightweight visor lens on the HGU–55/P helmet?

 

Household detergent and water.

 

(202) One purpose of the AFTO Form 334, Helmet and Oxygen Mask/Connector Inspection Data,

 

is to

 

record modifications to a helmet.

 

(203) What is the approximate measurement, in inches, from the center eye position to the helmet

 

edge roll when fitting the HGU–55 series helmet?

 

2 ± ?.

 

(203) What knot is used to tie off the standard nape strap after a proper fit is achieved on the HGU 55/P helmet?

 

 

Square.

 

(204) How are the extra small (XS) and extra-extra small (XXS) HGU–56/P helmet sizes obtained?

 

Use a thicker energy absorbing liner (EAL).

 

(204) The nape strap pad is secured to the helmet shell on the HGU–56/P helmet by using a

 

nylon cord.

 

(204) Where is the connector located that is used to attach the communication earplugs (CEP) to

 

the HGU–56/P helmet shell?

 

right rear.

 

(205) Which component is mounted to the structure of the helmet display unit (HDU) of the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS) that provides an electrical signal representative of the pilot’s head position?

 

Magnetic receiver unit (MRU).

 

(205) What is the maximum amount, in inches, the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System

 

(JHMCS) visor should be trimmed at one time?

 

?.

 

(206) What component of the EEU–2/P goggles’ internal lens holder assembly is replaceable?

 

Controller.

 

(207) When referring to night vision goggles (NVG), the image produced by the image intensifier tube (ITT) is focused onto the

 

diopter lens.

 

(207) The AN/AVS–9 (V) night vision goggles (NVG) consist of how major component(s)?

 

2.

 

(207) What is the maximum voltage direct current (VDC) the power supply output can be adjusted to on the AN/AVS-9(V) night vision goggles?

 

 

3.0

(207) Which adjustment control on the AN/AVS–9(V) binocular assembly is used to adjust aircrew’s the line of sight?

 

Tilt.

 

(207) How many pounds per square inch (psi) of nitrogen do you apply to the goggle monocular

 

during a leak test?

 

3 ± ?

 

(207) Which solution is used to clean night vision goggle lens?

 

Denatured alcohol.

 

(207) What wattage light bulb is used for a night vision goggle (NVG) test lane?

 

7.

 

(207) What degrees horizontal is the field of view (FOV) for the AN/AVS–10(V) panoramic night

 

vision goggles (PNVG)?

 

95.

 

(207) What is the total weight, in grams, of the AN/AVS–10(V) Panoramic Night Vision Goggles

 

(PNVG)?

 

700.

 

(208) Aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices are designed to protect against

 

specific laser radiation transmitted through both visible and invisible wavelengths.

 

(208) Where are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) assets stored?

 

A locked storage container.

 

(208) How often are the aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) glasses inspected after receipt?

 

180 days.

 

(208) How are aircrew laser eye protection (ALEP) devices fitted on the aircrew member?

 

As close to the face as possible to maximize the area of protected vision.

 

(209) What causes the density of the atmosphere to rise and fall?

 

Altitude.

 

(209) The pressure exerted by the atmosphere is

 

greater near the surface of the earth.

 

(210) What is the maximum pounds per square inch (PSI) charge of a low-pressure oxygen storage cylinder?

 

 

 

 

 

450.

 

(210) The continuous-flow oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

 

 

30,000.

 

(210) The demand oxygen system provides sufficient oxygen for flights up to a maximum altitude of how many feet?

 

 

 

 

 

35,000.

 

(210) How many ways are there to provide sufficient pressure in the lungs to force oxygen into the blood?

 

2.

 

(211) What type manifold block is the CRU–60/P oxygen connector?

 

Three-way.

 

(211) Where does disconnection from the aircraft oxygen supply hose connector take place on the

 

CRU–60/P connector during ejection or emergency egress from the aircraft?

 

Lower intake port.

 

(212) A qualified specialist must inspect the CRU–60P connector every how many days?

 

30.

 

(212) What is the maximum length, in fractions of an inch, that the excess restraint cord can be after being trimmed when it is replaced in the CRU–60/P connector?

 

 

 

 

 

 

?.

 

(212) How many pounds should the friction disconnect force be when checking the CRU–60P

 

oxygen regulator to mask connection?

 

12 to 20.

 

(212) What is the maximum standard cubic centimeters per minute (SCCM) leakage rate allowed during the LOW RANGE leakage test of the CRU?60/P connector?

 

250.

 

(213) How many liters of aviator oxygen are contained in the single oxygen cylinder within the

 

emergency oxygen passenger system (EPOS)?

 

18.

 

(214) The purpose of the breathing valves located in the valve body of the passenger oxygen mask

is to

 

provide an anchor for the head strap.

 

(214) What is the maximum number of days between inspection intervals for passenger oxygen masks that are used in a non-fixed environment?

 

 

 

 

90.

 

(215) The individual harness adjustment straps are attached to the MBU–12/P oxygen mask with

 

capped T-nuts and a self-locking screws.

 

(215) In inches, how long is the MBU–12/P oxygen mask hose?

 

17?.

 

(215) What type of cord is used to tack down the buckles on the MBU–12/P straps and buckle

 

assembly to prevent movement?

 

Type IVB, 8/4 double-waxed.

 

(216) What prevents oxygen from being released accidentally from the emergency oxygen

 

assembly?

 

Caution tag with pin.

 

(217) The Scott 358 series folding quick-don mask assembly is secured to the wearer’s face with

 

spring-loaded telescopic mounts on a suspension assembly.

 

(218) What are the three types of acceleration an aircraft can encounter?

 

Linear, angular, or centripetal.

 

(218) At what negative gravity forces is there a danger of brain hemorrhage and death?

 

3 to 4.

 

(218) What type of gravity forces act upon the body from head to foot?

 

Positive.

 

(218) What aircraft maneuvers cause positive gravity forces?

 

Pullout maneuvers, tight turns, and upward ejection.

 

(219) The CSU–13 B/P anti-gravity garment bladder casings are constructed of

 

polyurethane-coated taffeta cloth.

 

(219) When the CSU–13B/P anti-gravity garment is disconnected from an aircraft in a pressurized condition in excess of 1.5 pounds per square inch (PSI), the bladders automatically bleed down to

 

1.5 psi in 4 seconds.

 

(220) What measurements from the aircrew members are needed to properly size their CSU–13 series anti-gravity suit?

 

Weight and height.

 

(220) If the individual being fitted for a gravity suit is borderline between sizes, what action is

 

taken?

 

Use the smaller size.

 

(221) In the event of a slide fastener failure, the secondary restraint device on the CSU 23/P

 

antigravity suit is designed to

 

prevent the bladder from interfering with the cockpit operations.

 

(221) Where is the air hose located on the CSU–23/P antigravity suit that facilitates connecting to

 

the anti-gravity valve on the F–22 aircraft?

 

Right side.

 

(222) Why must the HGU–55 series helmet be modified when it is used with COMBAT EDGE

 

equipment?

 

To provide for automatic mask tensioning.

 

(222) Which CRU regulated connector do you perform a flow test and an altitude pressure

 

breathing test on?

 

120/P.

 

(222) In feet, what is the maximum altitude that the CRU?122/P regulated integrated terminal block (ITB) can be used?

 

 

 

 

60,000.

 

(223) Approximately how far above the chin strap do you position the lower front rivet of the bayonet receiver for it to be properly located on the HGU?55P helmet?

 

 

 

1 inch.

 

(223) What is the maximum amount you can trim the MBU–20 series mask face piece for confort?

 

? inch.

 

(223) During a COMBAT EDGE equipment pressure check, what is the maximum number of breaths an aircrew member may take at pressures below 34 inches of water gauge (in. Wg)?

 

 

 

 

 

5.

 

(223) How many inches of water gauge (in. Wg) should the OUTPUT PRESSURE gauge read

 

during a COMBAT EDGE equipment pressure check?

 

32 ± 2.

 

(224) How many inches should the 100 pound (lb) parachute cord be when being replaced inside

 

the integrated terminal block (ITB) connector?

 

24.

 

(224) How many seconds minimum should the inhalation and exhalation valves be swished in an alcohol solution when cleaning them?

 

 

 

 

10.

 

(224) What torque is required on the screws when installing a microphone into the MBU?20/P mask?

 

 

 

 

 

15 +/-1 inch ounces.

 

(225) What does an aircrew member’s survival time depend on in water temperatures above 70 degrees Fahrenheit?

 

 

 

 

Degree of immersion, fatigue factor, and swimming ability.

 

(225) Inspect the CWU–16/P anti-exposure coverall prior to issue and every how many days?

 

180 ± 10.

 

(225) What is the longest linear (straight) tear that can be repaired on the CWU–16/P antiexposure coverall?

 

 

 

 

 

2? inches.

 

(225) Why do the tops of the CWU–67/P socks extend to the flight boots when they are connected to CWU–74/P anti-exposure suit?

 

Reduce bulk and restriction.

 

(225) An aircrew flight equipment journeyman performs a periodic inspection on the CWU–74/P

 

anti-exposure suit every how many days?

 

180.

 

(225) How many sizes do the CWU?86/P and CWU?87/P flyer’s anti-exposure coveralls come in for women?

 

24.

 

(225) In years, what is the service life of the CWU?86/P and CWU?87/P flyer’s anti-exposure coveralls?

 

 

12.

 

(225) What length must the damage be less than in order to repair the neoprene layer of a wrist seal of the CWU?86/P and CWU?87/P coveralls?

 

? inch.

 

How many sizes does the MBU?19/P mask–hood assembly come in?

 

4.

 

(226) How many volts direct current (VDC) is required to operate the CQU–7/P blower assembly

 

when it is connected to an aircraft power supply?

 

28 ± 4.

 

(226) What position on the MXU?835/P communication subsystem is listen only?

 

2nd.

 

(226) How many modes of operation does the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP)

 

system have?

 

4.

 

(226) A CQU–7/P blower failure is indicated to the wearer by

 

the loss of lens de-mist and increased breathing resistance.

 

(227) How often do you perform operational checks on the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection

 

 

(AERP) ensemble that are fitted for contingency operations?

 

 

18 months.

 

(227) What is the maximum number of times you can launder the CWU?66/P aircrew chemical ensemble (ACE)?

 

 

 

 

 

10.

 

(227) What is the minimum hours of cure time for the adhesive when replacing the plenum tubes during repair of the MBU?19/P mask?

 

12.

 

(227) By what part of an inch must the edges overlap when repairing tears on the CWU-66/P-77/P aircrewchemical ensemble (ACE)?

 

 

 

?.

 

(227) What torque is required when installing the bayonet and strap assembly to the MBU?19/P mask?

 

 

 

 

 

4-6 inch-pounds.

(227) What is the required torque when installing the hose barb of the drinking tube assembly to the pass-through on the MBU-19/P mask?

 

 

5 inch-pounds.

 

(227) How many hours must be allowed for the silastic adhesive to cure when you replace the

 

microphone gasket on Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP) equipment?

 

24.

 

(228) How should the Aircrew Eye/Respiratory Protection (AERP) tear-away pull knobs be

 

positioned during wear?

 

Under the lower harness straps.

 

(228) When fitting the MBU–19/P aircrew chemical ensemble to a non-helmeted system the face piece should be trimmed no more than what fraction of an inch during the first cut?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

?.

 

(228) What is the maximum length, in inches, the MBU?19/P mask adjustment strap can be after a proper fit is made?

 

 

 

 

 

3.

 

(228) What is the length of the CWU?66/P if a male is over 6 feet, 1-inch tall?

 

Long.

 

(229) The purpose of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is to provide

 

detection, contamination control, and processing provisions for aircrews

 

(229) When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA), once the consistent wind

 

direction is determined, the processing direction is established at a

 

45 to 60 degree deviation (angle) towards the wind direction.

 

(229) Who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color when setting up an

 

aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

 

ACCA manager.

 

(229) What item is not used for decontamination of equipment in the field?

 

A solution of a mild detergent and water.

 

(229) A minimum of how many trained technicians are required to run standard operations at an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

 

5.

 

(230) As an Aircrew Flight Equipment Journeyman, what is your first responsibility upon arrival of aircrew members from ground operations when chemical or biological contamination is suspected?

 

 

 

 

 

Apply all available decontamination methods to detect contaminates of personnel and assets.

 

(230) Up to how many attendants may be required to process one aircrew member in Area 1

 of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?

 

3.

 

(230) What area of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA) is the boot and protective over garment removal phase?

 

3.

(231) How many main components does the counter-radiological warfare (C-RW) concept of

 

operations consist of?

 

3.

 

(231) What is the minimum hours following an event in which installations will receive specialized federal assets?

 

 

 

 

 

12.

 

(401) The ML–4 survival kit is attached to the parachute harness by

 

one ejector snap assembly and one non-ejector snap.

 

(401) The advanced concept ejection seat II (ACES II) survival kit must not be packed to weigh less than

 

10 or more than 40 pounds

 

(401) What action may be taken if an advanced concept ejection seat II (ACES II) survival kit has a hole in the container assembly flaps?

 

Darn or patch with a single, outside patch.

 

(402) When using a soft-type kit, what is the minimum clearance required on each side of an

 

ejection seat survival kit between the kit and the seat with an aircrew sitting on it?

 

? inch.

 

(402) Which aircraft maintenance symbol is used when the aircraft condition is unsatisfactory but

 

does not warrant grounding of the aircraft or discontinuing use of the equipment?

 

Red diagonal (/).

 

(402) What action is required to indicate that an individual has completed the required maintenance on an aircraft or related equipment?

 

A black last-name initial entered over the symbol.

 

(403) How many sizes are available for the air ace survival vest?

 

2.

 

(404) The AIRSAVE vest is constructed with fire-retardant coated

 

nylon mesh.

 

(404) The AIRSAVE is intended to be worn the over top of the

 

torso harness.

 

(404) How often do you perform a periodic inspection to an in-service vest?

 

180 days.

 

(405) What is the maximum number of times that an aircrew body armor (ABA) cover should be

 

washed?

 

15.

 

(405) What is the maximum temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit (F), the water must be when

 

washing the aircrew body armor (ABA) cover?

 

105F +/- 5F.

 

(406) On the lensatic compass, each click on the bezel ring represents

 

3 degrees.

 

(407) One way of identifying the night end of the MK–13 MOD 0 distress signal in total darkness

 

and without the aid of artificial light is by the

 

ring of embossed projections below the closure.

 

(408) How often must you perform a periodic inspection on one-man life rafts?

 

Every year ± 10 days.

 

(408) What is the periodic inspection interval for the 46-man life raft?

 

Every three years + 10 days.

 

(408) During a periodic inspection of life preservers, what percentage of the set (lot) is

 

functionally tested?

 

5.

 

(409) Which form is yellow and contains an inventory list for accessory kits?

 

AFTO Form 337, Life Raft Container Inspection Record.

 

(409) One purpose of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 46 is to

 

document preservers propositioned on an aircraft.

 

(410) What color vacuum hose do you use to help reduce tripping hazards?

 

Yellow.

 

(411) What equipment item is not used to indicate air pressure?

 

Dial push/pull gauge.

 

(412) What is the dial push/pull gauge designed to measure?

 

Compression and tension.

 

(413) What is the correct setting for the aft poise block when weighing an LPU–10/P carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder?

 

 

 

100 gram notch.

 

(413) On a digital scale, what key switches the display from kilograms to decimal pounds?

 

UNITS.

 

(414) The LPU–10/P uses a FLU–1/P that incorporates a cell-venting capability which eliminates the need for a

 

breather clip.

 

(414) What color are the bladders on the LPU–38/P life preserver?

 

Yellow with a black cover.

 

(415) During which inspection procedure do you not open the life preserver?

 

Screening

 

(415) What type of inspection do you perform on flotation equipment when the equipment status

 

is questionable?

 

Special.

 

(415) How many LPU–10/P life preservers out of 100 will require a functional test?

 

5.

 

(416) What is the minimum allowable corrected pounds per square inch (psi) pressure during the 6 hour leak test of the LPU-10/P?

 

 

 

 

 

1.5 psi.

 

(417) What is the acceptable direct current voltage (VDC) reading during the FLU–9 B/P battery test?

 

12.0 VDC.

 

(417) During the leakage test of the LPU–38/P, the initial pounds per square inch (psi) pressure

 

must you inflate the bladder to is

 

3.25 psi.

 

 

 

 

 

(417) During the leakage test of the LPU–38/P, the minimum pounds per square inch (psi) pressure allowed on the bladders to pass the test after at least one hour is

 

 

2.50 psi.

 

(418) What item do you center on top of the last fold after completion of the folding procedure on

 

the LPU–10/P cell?

 

Oral inflation valve.

 

(419) When closing the LPU–38/P container using the top side folding procedure, the top should form a fold approximately how many inches wide?

3.

 

(419) When closing the LPU–38/P container, what is the required inch pounds (lbs.) torque value

 

on the exterior cover screws?

 

12 to 15 inch lbs.

 

(420) When fitting the LPU–10/P life preserver to a crewmember, where are the containers

 

placed?

 

Below the armpits.

 

(420) How is the tacking of excess straps on the LPU–38/P secured?

 

Surgeon’s knot, followed by a locking knot.

 

 

(421) How many primary inflators are on an A–A–50652 life preserver?

 

Two singles.

 

(421) What is the length of the nylon lanyard that is attached to the D-ring or waist strap on an

 

adult/child preserver?

 

10 feet.

 

(422) Which item is needed to remove air from the A–A–50652 life preserver?

 

Deflation adapter.

 

(422) If you check the sea-dye marker and the dye has hardened,

 

it will still work, but will take longer to dissolve.

 

(422) During inspection of the water activated light, check the battery case for cracks and

 

swelling.

 

(422) What setting should a multi-meter be adjusted to when checking a water-activated light

 

battery?

 

Volts.

 

(423) What type of gas cylinder is used to inflate the A–A–50652 life preserver?

 

Carbon dioxide (CO2).

 

(423) When packing the A–A–50652 life preserver, where do you position the inflators?

 

Bottom of container.

 

(424) Sealed and safety tied portions of the life preservers should not be opened for the

 

preflight inspection.

 

(425) A life preserver is considered beyond repair when which condition is present?

 

Valve stems separating.

 

(426) What is the required size of the cell protector for the LPU–10/P?

 

3? by 4? inches.

 

(426) What length of pile tape is required for the hook and pile cell connector on an LPU–10/P?

 

12 inches.

 

(427) The purpose of the ballast bags on the LRU–16/P one-man life raft is to

 

stabilize boarding.

 

(427) How is the floor inflated on the LRU–16/P raft?

 

By oral inflation.

 

(427) How is the oral inflation tube on LRU–16/P flotation tube identified?

 

The tube is either solid red or it has red tape wrapped around it.

 

(427) The purpose of the spray shield on an LRU–16/P life raft is to

 

protect the individual from rain.

 

(428) What is the required torque value in inch pounds (in-lbs) for securing the carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder to an LRU-16/P life raft?

 

50 to 60.

 

(428) When an LRU–16/P life raft is functional tested, what is the approximate time that the raft

 

should inflate to its designed shape and size?

 

30 seconds.

 

(428) When performing an LRU–16/P buoyancy tube twist check, what size blocks are used and

 

where are they positioned?

 

3? inch, diagonally.

 

(429) When inflating a spray shield on a life raft, what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi)

 

must you ensure the air source does not exceed?

 

5 psi.

 

(429) What is the minimum and maximum time an inflated LRU–16/P life raft can sit during a

 

leakage test?

 

6 hours; 8 hours.

 

(429) When figuring corrected pressure, which number is added or subtracted to the final pressure reading for each 1°F change in temperature?

 

0.031.

 

(429) On a one-man raft, what size lettering should be marked on the raft to annotate the date

 

inspected?

 

?- to ?-inch.

 

(430) The purpose of securing the sea anchor on a one-man raft is to

 

prevent the bow from raising during boarding.

 

(430) What is the purpose of the adapter clip used with the LRU–16/P raft?

 

Prevents inadvertent release of the swag ball.

 

(431) The purpose of the diffuser on a multi-place life raft is to

 

break up the direct blast of carbon dioxide (CO2).

 

(432) What is used to inflate the 25-man life raft?

 

Compressed air augmented by ambient air.

 

(432) When fully configured, the 46-man life raft weighs approximately

 

200 pounds.

 

(433) When an F–2B life raft is functional tested, what is the approximate time in which the raft

 

should inflate to its designed shape?

 

60 seconds.

 

(433) One hour after completing the functional test, what will be the compartment differential

 

pressure range in pounds per square inch (psi) for the F–2B life raft?

 

1.5 to 2.2 psi.

 

(434) What is the required torque range in inch pounds (in-lbs) for installing the carbon dioxide (CO2) cylinder to the F-2B life raft?

 

 

140 to 150 in-lbs.

 

(434) What is the last thing you must do prior to folding the F–2B life raft?

 

Remove the equalizer tube clamp.

 

(435) What type of knot do we use to attach the actuation line to the actuation cable on the F–2B

 

cylinder?

 

Bowline.

 

(435) What type of cord do you use to lace the side flaps on the F–2B wing well container?

 

8/4.

 

(436) What is the shape of the 22D23585 life raft when fully inflated?

 

Decagon.

 

(436) The compressed air cylinder on the 25-man life raft must receive a hydrostatic test every

 

3 years.

 

(437) Where do you position the jet pumps when packing the 25-man life raft?

 

Top edge of case.

 

(438) To what pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) is the 46-man life raft inflated during a

 

leakage test?

 

2.0 psi.

 

(438) How long does the 46-man life raft undergo a leakage test?

 

6 hours.

 

(439) Before you pack the 46-man life raft, what is the maximum overall width of the folded raft?

 

16 inches.

 

(440) What is the maximum number of patches that can be applied to the flotation tube of a

 

single-place life raft?

 

3.

 

(440) What amount must the patch overlap the damaged area when applying a patch to any life

 

raft?

 

1?-inches.

 

(441) When you manufacture an inspection data pocket for a life raft carrying case, what size

 

material must be cut and where is the grommet positioned?

 

4 by 5 inches; centered on the 4 inch side.

 

(442) The C–5 type escape slide is packed into a

 

fiberglass breakaway case.

 

(443) How many jet pumps are on a KC–135 type escape slide?

 

1.

 

(443) What is the maximum time it should take for the KC–135 escape slide to inflate to its designed shape?

 

 

 

 

 

10 seconds.

 

(443) The KC–135 type escape slide is packed into

 

an envelope type container.

 

(444) The C–5 escape slide requires a periodic inspection every

 

12 months.

 

(445) The maximum number of non-parallel lamps that can be allowed to be inoperative on the C–5 escape slide is

 

 

 

 

 

2.

 

(446) When folding and packing the C–5 escape slide, how must you rotate the right side jet

 

pumps?

 

90 degrees clockwise.

 

(447) What size loop do you form when securing the KC–135 slide tie patches?

 

5?16-inch.

 

(447) You fold the KC–135 escape slide to achieve an overall width of

 

23 inches.

(447) During the packing process of a KC–135 slide, when are you required to remove the

 

vacuum adapter?

 

After inserting the slide into the container.

 

(448) What is the recommended shape of a C–5 escape slide repair patch?

 

Circular.

 

(449) KC–135 cylinders are condemned if 4,380 pressurizations have been met or after how many

 

years from the date of the first test?

 

24.

 

(449) What is the main difference between the C–5 and the KC–135 cylinder inspections?

 

Inspection or test.

 

(450) The AN/PRC–112B1 radio acts as a transponder supplying

 

bearing and distance ranging pulses and personnel ID information.

 

(450) What beacon megahertz (MHz) frequencies does the AN/PRC–112 series radio contain?

 

121 and 243.5 MHz.

 

(451) The ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications (SATCOM) mode supports two way secure messaging/geoposition (location identifier) between the AN/GRC–242 Radio Set Base Station, and the AN/PRQ–7 Radio Set (HHR) through a

 

UHF SATCOM channel.

 

(452) How many trailing antenna(s) is the AN/URT- 44 PLB equipped with?

 

2.

 

(452) On what two megahertz (MHz) frequencies can the URT–44 provide homing signals?

 

121.5 MHz and 243 MHz.

 

(453) What is the flash rate for the MS–2000M strobe light?

 

50 ± 10 flashes per minute.

 

(601) The various styles of personnel parachutes are

 

seat, chest, back, and recovery.

 

(601) The maximum number of airspeed knots that an advanced concept ejection seat (ACES) II system can operate at is

 

 

 

 

 

600.

 

(602) What are the three major components of the back automatic parachute?

 

Canopy, pack and harness, automatic ripcord release.

What are the minor components that make up the parachute assembly of the recovery parachute components?

 

 

 

 

 

Pilot parachute, bridle line, type of ripcord assembly.

 

(602) The pilot parachute C–9 canopy’s characteristics are best described as a

 

multicolored 28-feet diameter, flat circular canopy.

 

(602) What type of C–9 canopy quick release is used on back automatic parachutes?

 

PCU–4/P.

 

(603) What malfunction on the personnel parachute is caused by excessive opening forces?

 

Broken lines.

 

(604) What is the ideal temperature and relative humidity for working with parachutes?

 

75° and 60 percent.

 

(604) Why is controlling the relative humidity and temperature important in a parachute shop?

 

Prevents static electricity in the canopy cloth.

 

(605) What type of personnel protective equipment are you not required to wear when hoisting personnal parachutes in the drying tower?

 

 

 

 

Steel toe shoes.

 

(605) What percentage range of the manufacturer’s rated load do you apply to a hoist during a load test?

 

100 to 125.

 

(606) Who is responsible for ensuring all parachutes on the aircraft have been inspected prior to flight?

 

Aircraft commander.

 

(606) An aircrew flight equipment specialist determines if the aneroid of the Scot release is

 

leaking if the

 

aneroid edge is no longer visible.

 

(606) When performing a routine inspection on personnel parachutes, the ejector snaps

 

must release at 7 ± 2 pounds.

 

(607) Within how many hours may parachute components be used again if they are completely

 

rinsed after being immersed in salt water?

 

24.

 

(607) Which of the following statements is true about cleaning deceleration parachutes?

 

They may need to soak longer in fresh running water.

 

(608) How should you prepare serviceable canopies for return to the base supply system?

 

Loosely folded and placed into a polyethylene bag.

 

(609) Which form is initiated to reflect the date the assembly was removed from service when a

 

personnel parachute is prepared for shipping?

 

AFTO Form 392, Parachute Repack, Inspection and Component Record.

 

(609) How many and where are DD Forms 1574, Serviceable Tag-Materiel, attached to a

 

serviceable parachute assembly packaged for shipping?

 

Two, attach one to the parachute and the other to the shipping container.

 

(610) The leg straps on a Class III parachute torso harness

 

prevents falling downward out of the sling.

 

(610) What is the purpose of the torso harness canopy release?

 

Allows jettisoning of the parachute canopy.

 

(611) What position is a crewmember in when you are fitting a torso harness?

 

Standing and leaning forward.

 

(611) Where and how should you position the chest strap when fitting the torso harness on a

 

crewmember?

 

10 to 12 inches below the chin and tighten.

 

(612) During a routine inspection of torso harnesses, remove surface dirt and contaminants with

 

semi-soft bristle brush.

 

(613) The Frost canopy releases are actuated by

 

squeezing the lever and then sliding toward each other.

 

(613) While in Training mode, the Cybernetic Parachute Release System (CYPRES) updates the

 

ground pressure value every

 

30 seconds.

 

(614) What could you use to hold Scot release cartridges or boosters on a table?

 

Cheesecloth pad.

 

(615) What color streamer is attached to the back-automatic parachute with a .25-second time

 

delay cartridge?

 

Yellow.

 

(615) A red streamer installed on a back-style parachute means it

 

has a one second automatic ripcord release time-delay device.

 

(616) What type pads are installed on the main body of the Scot automatic ripcord release to

 

cushion sharp blows?

 

Honeycomb.

 

(616) Which components make-up the Scot automatic ripcord release cartridge housing?

 

Housing, snap ring, and anvil assembly.

 

(617) When performing the aneroid check on the Scot automatic ripcord release, the automatic

 

parachute release tester automatically arms the release at a simulated altitude of

 

30,000 feet.

 

(617) What designated-size rod would you use to remove the cartridge and booster from the

 

cartridge housing on the Scot automatic ripcord release?

 

0.19-inch diameter.

 

(617) When testing the Scot automatic ripcord release, be sure the serviceable range is between

 

13,000 to 15,000 feet.

 

(618) The Scot automatic ripcord release aneroid is leaking or defective if the edge is

 

not visible.

 

(618) How much movement (rotation) is allowed in the power cable when inspecting the Scot

 

automatic ripcord release?

 

None, no movement is allowed.

 

(619) What torque value is applied to the power cable nut and outer housing when you assemble

 

the Scot automatic ripcord release?

 

100 inch-pounds.

 

(619) When installing the Scot automatic ripcord release power cable, insert the top ripcord pin

 

into the

 

beveled side of the power cable eye.

 

(620) Which type stitch would you use to close the end of the SRU–16/P minimum survival kit?

 

Basting.

 

(620) How many minutes, approximately, of emergency oxygen does the MD–1 emergency

 

oxygen cylinder furnish?

 

10.

 

(620) How do you fold the nylon binding tape of the harness when inspecting the CRU–60

 

mounting bracket?

 

Against the harness webbing edge of the right vertical strap.

 

(620) During inspection, what pressure reading should you ensure is on the pressure gauge of the

 

MD–1 emergency oxygen cylinder?

 

1800 psi.

 

(620) What type of thread is used to attach the personnel lowering device hardware pocket to the

 

main lift web?

 

Waxed No. 8/9 thread.

 

(620) How many inches of plastic tubing is installed over the hook blade knife of the pocket

 

assembly?

 

Three.

 

(620) What type of knot is used to secure the MD–1 emergency oxygen cylinder pocket when you

 

are installing it?

 

Bowknot.

 

(620) What is used to install the ACR/MS–2000M survival light pocket to the pack and harness

 

assembly?

 

Size “E” nylon thread, 7–11 stitches per inch, two rows.

 

(620) Identify the extraction force required to remove the cable from the automatic survival kit

 

actuator upper disconnect assembly.

 

25 ± 5 pounds.

 

(621) Which back automatic parachute model is used for premeditated jumps?

 

B–22Z.

 

(622) What keeps the automatic back parachute quarter deployment bag in the pack, during deployment, until three quarters of the canopy has deployed?

 

 

Canopy thong tacking.

 

(622) One purpose of the four-line jettison system on the automatic back parachute is to

 

reduce canopy oscillation.

 

(623) What two suspension lines are inspected to ensure the 4-line jettison release lanyards are

 

securely attached?

 

3 and 26.

 

(623) What torque value do you apply to lock the serrated plates in place on the automatic back

 

parachute connector links?

 

8 to 10 inch-pounds.

 

(624) How many inches of unstowed suspension lines should remain on the automatic back

 

parachute?

 

18 to 24.

 

(624) Prior to installing the quarter deployment bag into the pack of the automatic back parachute flip it

 

 

180° counterclockwise.

 

(624) Reduce the numbers two and three “U” folds, when stowing the quarter deployment bag and canopy, on the automatic back parachute by approximately

 

16 inches.

 

(624) What is the maximum thickness of a packed automatic back parachute?

 

5 1/2inches.
(625) What size and shape is marked on the pack material when you are reinforcing a grommet?

1 1/8 inches square.

 

(625) How much stitch overlap is required when you repair original stitching on personnel

 

parachute canopies?

 

2 inches.

 

(626) The immediate cause of the canopy to extract from the outer deployment bag to full

 

deployment is the

 

falling parachutist.

 

(627) What is the forward speed (miles per hour) range of the ram air canopy on the basic MC–4/MC–5 Ram Air Parachute system?

 

20 to 25.

 

(627) What is the loop attached to on the center of the suspension lines slider assembly?

 

Drogue/slider control line.

 

(628) What information is needed for the advanced concept ejection seat (ACES) II recovery system to determine its mode of operation?

 

Speed and altitude.

 

(628) Which statement best describes Mode 1 of the ACES II ejection system?

 

Low-speed, low-altitude ejection.

 

(629) What is used to align the ACES II recovery parachute reefing line cutters?

 

Two, 2 3/4-inch phenolic stays.

 

(629) What is the time delay for the reefing line cutters to fire on the ACES II parachute?

 

1.15 seconds.

 

(629) The purpose of the mortar assembly on the ACES II parachute is to

 

pull the parachute container assembly away from the seat.

 

(630) What is the inspection cycle for ACES II parachutes installed in B–1B aircraft?

 

5 years.

(630) What would you use to clean contaminates found inside the pitot tubes on the ACES II

 

container?

 

P-D–680 solvent.

 

(631) Do not twist the reefing line cutter lanyards around the mortar tube on the ACES II more than

 

 

 

 

 

90°.

 

(631) How many inches of suspension lines do you leave unstowed on the ACES II recovery

 

parachute?

 

18 to 22.

 

(632) What is the maximum size limitation for applying a double patch to the ACES II recovery canopy?

 

 

 

 

 

8 inches.

 

(632) When replacing the Velcro tape on the ACES II recovery parachute container, before applying the second coat of cement, you must wait for

 

 

1 hour.

 

(633) How many pounds do the drogue riser assembly on the ACES II weigh?

 

9,000.

 

(634) What do you inspect for on the hasp rod and retaining latch during the ACES II drogue

 

parachute compartment inspection?

 

Proper mating.

 

(635) When preparing the ACES II drogue parachute for packing, tape the riser legs using

 

2 wraps of 1-inch pressure sensitive tape.

 

(635) What torque value do you use when installing the nut of the bolt that passes through the ACES II drogue gun slug?

 

None, but the dome must show.

 

(636) What size thread is used to replace a suspension line on the ACES II drogue canopy?

 

FF.

 

(637) You determine the material’s bias by a diagonal line that is at a

 

45-degree angle to the selvage edge.

 

(638) What is a constructional feature of nylon?

 

Is mildew proof.

 

(639) The tensile strength of stored synthetic material begins to be affected if it is exposed to incandescent light for periods longer than

 

 

 

 

 

36 hours.

 

(640) Which letter do you form with the needle thread when threading the tension and thread

 

controller assemblies on the Consew 206RB sewing machine?

 

S.

 

(641) The primary purpose of installing a finger guard on a sewing machine is to

 

keep the operator’s fingers away from the needle area and presser feet.

 

(642) When performing a preventive maintenance inspection on a sewing machine, you check all of the following except

 

 

material thickness.

 

(642) What should you use to dissolve built up grime on a sewing machine?

 

Dry cleaning solvent.

 

(643) To increase tension on the needle thread of the Consew 206RB sewing machine, you will turn the

 

 

 

 

 

thread controller stud thumbnut to the right.

 

(644) While sewing very thick material your needle starts bending and finally breaks. To correct this problem you must install a

 

 

larger diameter needle.

 

(645) What component on the Consew 206RB sewing machine re-engages the safety clutch?

 

Push button.

 

(646) What is the maximum size lift of the alternating presser feet on the Consew 199–2A zigzag sewing machine?

 

 

 

 

 

15/64-inch.

 

(646) What is the minimum number of stitches per inch (SPI) on the Consew 199–2A zigzag sewing machine?

 

 

 

 

 

Five.

 

(647) What type of feed does the Chandler 767 sewing machine have?

 

Drop feed with alternating presser feet.

 

(648) Which type of hand needle is most appropriate to use when repairing and installing a seat cushion cover?

 

 

 

 

 

Upholsterer’s curved.

 

(648) Which type of hand needle should be used to sew fabrics with a loose or large weave?

 

Harness maker’s round.

 

(649) To hold plies of material together before machine sewing, use the hand-sewn seam pattern

 

known as

 

basting.

 

(649) What permanent hand-sewn stitch would you use to attach metal hardware to material?

 

Overthrow.

 

(650) All of the following are advantages of a machine-sewn seam over a hand-sewn seam except

 

strength.

 

(650) In the machine-sewn seam specification symbol 301–SSa–1, 301 represents the

 

class of machine stitch.

(651) When machine sewing, you may need to minimize the bulk of a seam. Which class of seam is used for that purpose?

 

 

 

 

 

Flat seam.

 

(651) When installing binding tape on a seam, position the stitches from the selvage edge

 

1/16-inch.

 

(651) When sewing, how far behind a row of stitches should you begin re-stitching if the thread

 

breaks?

 

1/2-inch.

 

(652) When considering threads used for sewing, determine the thread strength by the

 

size and number of yarns used.

 

(653) What type of sewing knot is the simplest to use when joining two threads or cords?

 

Binder.

 

(654) What are some ways you can use protective covers to fit a particular object?

 

Security, weather and dust protection.

 

(654) Synthetic fabric made by laminating two layers of vinyl material over woven nylon is

 

called

 

Herculite.

 

(655) Which seam formation provides your protective cover with watershed characteristics

 

during fabrication?

 

301-LSq–2.

 

(655) How far, as a minimum, do you overstitch a hole while darning protective covers?

 

1/4 -inch.

 

(655) When installing a patch to a protective cover, the standard amount of turn under is

 

3/4-inch.

(655) What is the shape of a watershed patch used for repairing protective covers?

 

Square with a triangle top.

 

(656) What are the two types of upholstery you use for fabric coverings and cushions on

 

aircraft?

 

Flexible and rigid.

 

(657) What is one disadvantage of using Naugahyde for upholstery?

 

Does not breathe.

 

(658) Which type of aircraft soundproofing material has heat-sealed edges?

 

Batt.

 

(659) To ensure a re-fabricated soundproofing panel fits properly, you should

 

use the old panel as a pattern.

 

(659) What type of material must you use to repair soundproofing panels?

 

Same as the outer layer.

 

(660) Which methods of installation are used to install thermal radiation barrier curtains on B–52

 

aircraft?

 

Rolling, folding, sliding, and snap fastener.

 

(661) What is your first inspection requirement for all thermal radiation barrier curtains?

 

Cleanliness.

 

(661) Which type light is allowed to show through when you are inspecting closed thermal radiation barrier curtains?

 

 

 

 

 

Translucent.

 

(662) What is the minimum room temperature requirement before making any repairs to thermal radiation barrier curtains?

 

 

 

 

 

60° F.

(801) The best way to show respect to other instructors after you have completed a class is to

 

remove any equipment you brought into the classroom.

 

(801) Tact is defined as

 

the ability to deal with others without giving offense.

 

(801) Of all the personal qualities used in aircrew instruction, which one should you not over use?

 

Friendliness.

 

(801) Sincerity is defined as

 

honesty of mind or intention.

 

(801) Why is good verbal support material during a hands-on training class necessary?

 

Clarifies, proves, and emphasizes key points.

 

(801) What is the first quality you should have before trying to conduct hands-on training?

 

Knowledge of equipment.

 

(802) Four of the most common presentation methods are lecture, demonstration, performance, and

 

discussion.

 

(802) Which method of instruction is such that the success of the lesson rests solely with the

 

instructor?

 

Lecture.

 

(802) In the discussion method of instruction, the main purpose of a “lead-off” question is to

 

open up an area of discussion.

 

(803) The purpose of the aircrew flight equipment continuation-training program is to

 

keep aircrew members current and up-to date on equipment.

 

(803) Which Air Force instruction establishes the need and requirements for a continuation training program within your aircrew flight equipment unit?

 

 

11-301 Volume 1, Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE)Program.

 

(803) Who develops the approved Air Force Master Lesson Plan?

 

Career development course writer.

 

(803) Who is responsible to review personal and wing lesson plans to make sure they comply with

 

the Air Force master lesson plan and are current?

 

Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer.

 

(803) How often must aircrew flight equipment continuation-training (AFECT) lesson plans be validated?

 

 

Biennially.

 

(803) The primary purpose of a lesson plan is to make sure the instructor

 

considers every factor that might influence the effectiveness of a lesson.

 

(803) Part I of a lesson plan contains

 

the lesson objectives and references.

 

(803) What is the role of the attention step in the introduction of part II of a lesson plan?

 

Gains the attention of the aircrew.

 

(804) Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training class is used for non-ejection egress class?

 

 

 

 

 

LL03.

 

(804) The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be inspected at intervals not to exceed

 

 

 

 

 

180 days.

 

(804) After completing the inspection for the equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training, you must

 

 

document the inspection.

 

(804) The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be

 

stenciled “FOR TRAINING USE ONLY.”

 

(804) When may operational aircrew flight equipment assets be used for training?

 

In critical cases, such as night vision goggles and combat survival radios.

 

(804) Who has the authority to allow operational equipment to be used for training?

 

MAJCOM.

 

(804) What should be your number one concern when instructing equipment continuation training courses?

 

 

 

 

 

Safety.

 

(804) Who must verify that an operational risk management program has been implemented in your training program?

 

 

 

 

 

Aircrew flight equipment superintendent or aircrew flight equipment officer.

 

(804) As an aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructor, your understanding and

 successful implementation of the emergency action plan is critical to ensure

 

everyone is safe should an emergency occur.

 

(805) What is one purpose of an aircraft safety investigation?

 

Reduce future mishap potential.

 

(805) What is the classification of a mishap that costs $2,000,000 or more?

 

Class A mishap.

 

(805) What is the classification of a mishap with a direct mishap cost totaling $500,000 or more

 but less than $2,000,000?

 

Class B mishap.

 

(805) What is the classification of a mishap that with a direct mishap cost totaling $50,000 or

 

more but less than $500,000?

 

Class C mishap.

 

(805) What is the classification of a mishap that involves any non fatal injury?

Class D mishap.

 

(805) How many different types of safety boards are there?

 

2.

 

(806) What is the first responsibility of the Interim Safety investigation board?

 

Make sure the crash site has been secured properly.

 

(807) What form do we use to document initial safety briefings?

 

AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.

 

(807) What is the first step in determining a training program for a new technician?

 

Review the Career Field Education and Training Plan/Specialty Training Standard.

 

(807) Which is not a method we use to evaluate technical school graduates?

 

Commander interviews.

 

(807) When are field evaluation questionnaires conducted?

 

Every two years.

 

(808) What provides a life-cycle training management tool that identifies career path education, training requirements, and core tasks for each skill level or duty position?

 

The Career Field Education and Training Plan.

 

(808) The master task list consists of a

 

Career Field Education and Training Plan and an AF Form 797.

 

(808) How many days does a trainee have to complete each volume of their career development courses?

 

30.

 

(809) What are the two types of on-the-job training?

 

Upgrade training and qualification training.

 

(809) Who should be designated as a trainer?

 

Only the most competent individual on each task.

 

(810) What document contains a complete history of your training progress?

 

AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

 

(810) What form is used to document tasks not listed in the CFETP.

 

AF Form 797, Job qualification Standard Continuation/Command Jobs.

 

(810) Your supervisor must document all training actions on an

 

AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet.

 

(811) All of the following are examples of the analytical troubleshooting method except

 

symptom.

 

(811) When performing testing and operational checks you should always

 

test in accordance with (IAW) applicable technical data.

 

(812) Who can approve a highly experienced 5-level technician to be a quality inspector?

 

AFE FEO/Superintendent.

 

(812) What is the form used to record quality control inspections?

 

AF Form 2420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.

 

(813) What is the requirement for a quality control inspector?

 

Qualified journeyman.

 

(813) Who maintains records of all approved locally designed tools?

 

Quality assurance inspector.

 

(814) What governs operating instructions in the Aircrew Flight Equipment shop?

 

AFI 11–301V1, Aircrew Life Support (ALS) Program.

 

(814) Who must approve your shop’s operating instructions?

Squadron commander or higher command authority.

 

(815) What publication governs safeguarding and protecting all classified information?

 

AFI 31–401, Information Security Program Management.

 

(815) What form do you use to show where the Air Force publication is filed?

 

DD Form 2681, Cross-Reference.

 

(816) The following technical order and publications explain how electronic TOs will be filed except

 

 

AFI 11–301, Aircrew Flight Equipment Program.

 

(817) At which level are deployment manning requirements determined?

 

MAJCOM.

 

(817) Deployment manning requirements are based on the

 

OPLAN and UTC.

 

(817) Unit type codes are represented with a

 

5-character alphanumeric code.

 

(817) What do unit type codes define?

 

Capabilities.

 

(817) What is the listing of all personnel assigned to a mobility position number to support a

 

tasking?

 

Deployment requirements manning document.

 

(817) What is used to assign and update personnel for mobility positions?

 

Deployment Management System.

 

(817) All personnel subject to deployment must complete all mandatory training except which of the following?

 

 

 

 

 

Chemical warfare defense training.

 

(818) Prior to deployment, your test measurement and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) should be calibrated to what extent and marked as what on the TMDE master listing?

 

Maximum extent possible, War Readiness Material.

 

(818) What personnel control the equipment by directing the folks in the transportation control

 

unit?

 

Deployment Control Center.

 

(818) What is a LOGPLAN wing material list?

 

An automated listing that identifies all of you unit’s equipment as configured on your base by the OPLAN.

 

(818) The forms used to identify hazardous material for military air transportation must have a certifying official’s signature and a vertical

 

 

 

 

 

red hatch border.

 

(818) Where is a Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods form not required?

 

In an envelope forwarded with the shipment.

 

(819) A limitation factor is a

 

factor or condition that either temporarily or permanently impedes mission accomplishment and requires the aid of higher headquarters to resolve.

 

(819) All limitation factors are classified to at least what level?

 

Secret.

 

(819) Who should be one of the first to deploy on the Advanced Echelon team?

 

Experienced AFE supervisor.

 

(820) For equipment on a 120-day inspection cycle, before deployment aircrew flight equipment personnel should check to make sure it has at least how many days left before the next inspection?

 

90.

 

(820) For aircraft contingency configuration requirements, refer to

 

AFI 11-301V1 and AFI 11-301V2.

 

(821) What is contained in a “BUG OUT” kit?

Minimum items needed to reestablish operations.

 

(821) During combat operations, what is your number one job?

 

Protection of the aircrew.

 

(822) The following are all steps in the OPSEC process except?

 

Implement risk control.

(822) Which component of COMSEC security allows the US governments the ability to transmit

 

a wide range of signals over unsecured (physical) communications path?

 

Crypto-security.

 

(822) An example of an emissions security is

 

a HOOK PRC-112 PLS data burst.

 

(822) What is the usual classification of Air Tasking Orders?

 

Secret.

 

(822) How often do Special Instructions need to be verified for currency?

 

Every shift change.

 

(822) What electronic means is used to get SPINS information?

 

SIPERNET.

 

(823) During an attack, it is important to protect your resources; however, due to static electricity do not cover fuels of munitions with

 

 

plastic sheeting.

 

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